Nokea
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about gynecological examination. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. The urethral orifice is assessed by separating the labia minora.
- B. The cervix should be palpated for size.
- C. The vagina should be inspected without a speculum.
- D. The clitoris should be massaged during examination.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The urethral orifice is located between the clitoris and vaginal opening, so separating the labia minora is necessary to assess it. This step ensures proper assessment of the urinary system and helps detect any abnormalities.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Palpating the cervix for size is not a standard part of a gynecological examination; it may cause discomfort and is unnecessary unless indicated for specific medical reasons.
C: Inspecting the vagina without a speculum is not recommended as it may not provide a clear view of the vaginal walls and cervix, potentially missing important findings.
D: Massaging the clitoris is not a part of a gynecological examination and is inappropriate; it may be uncomfortable for the patient and is not relevant to the assessment.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has a postoperative ileus and an NG tube that has drained 2,500 mL in the past 6 hr. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor the client for?
- A. Decreased potassium level
- B. Increased sodium level
- C. Increased calcium level
- D. Decreased magnesium level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased potassium level. Postoperative ileus can lead to gastrointestinal fluid losses, causing a decrease in potassium levels due to excessive drainage through the NG tube. Potassium is an important electrolyte for maintaining normal muscle function, including the heart. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias.
Incorrect choices:
B: Increased sodium level - Unlikely in this scenario as excessive drainage would lead to fluid and electrolyte loss.
C: Increased calcium level - Unrelated to postoperative ileus and NG tube drainage.
D: Decreased magnesium level - Possible but not as critical as monitoring potassium levels in this situation.
The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The nurse reviews the provider's orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Carvedilol
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carvedilol. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms in clients with a history of asthma due to its potential bronchoconstrictive effects. Furosemide (A), Spironolactone (C), and Lisinopril (D) are commonly used in heart failure management and do not pose a significant risk for clients with asthma. It is crucial to avoid medications that can worsen respiratory function in clients with a history of asthma to prevent complications.
A nurse is teaching a client with a history of calcium oxalate kidney stones. What advice should be given?
- A. Limit fluid intake to 1 L per day.
- B. Drink 3 L of fluid every day.
- C. Increase calcium intake.
- D. Avoid all citrus juices.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drink 3 L of fluid every day. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent the formation of kidney stones by diluting the urine and reducing the concentration of minerals like calcium oxalate. Adequate hydration promotes frequent urination, which helps flush out these minerals. Limiting fluid intake (choice A) can lead to concentrated urine and increase the risk of stone formation. Increasing calcium intake (choice C) can actually help prevent calcium oxalate stones, as calcium binds with oxalate in the intestines, reducing its absorption. Avoiding all citrus juices (choice D) is unnecessary, as they do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones.
A nurse is instructing a client how to decrease the nausea associated with chemotherapy and radiation. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat food that are served at room temperature.
- B. I will eat food that is very hot.
- C. I will drink large amounts of fluids with meals.
- D. I will eat a large meal right before chemotherapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: "I will eat food that is served at room temperature."
Rationale: Eating foods at room temperature can help decrease nausea because hot foods may worsen nausea, while cold foods could cause stomach discomfort. Room temperature foods are generally easier on the stomach and may be better tolerated during chemotherapy and radiation. This choice demonstrates an understanding of how food temperature can impact nausea.
Summary of other choices:
B: Eating very hot food can actually worsen nausea.
C: Drinking large amounts of fluids with meals can dilute stomach acid and enzymes, potentially worsening nausea.
D: Eating a large meal right before chemotherapy can lead to increased nausea and discomfort.
A nurse in a clinic is interviewing a client who has a possible diagnosis of endometriosis. Which of the following findings in the client's history should the nurse recognize as consistent with a diagnosis of endometriosis?
- A. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDs
- B. Heavy menstrual bleeding
- C. Positive family history of fibroids
- D. Pelvic pain after intercourse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDs. Endometriosis is characterized by severe menstrual pain that is not relieved by NSAIDs. This is due to the abnormal growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. Heavy menstrual bleeding (B) is a common symptom but not specific to endometriosis. Positive family history of fibroids (C) is unrelated to endometriosis. Pelvic pain after intercourse (D) can be a symptom of endometriosis but is not as specific as unresponsive dysmenorrhea.