Nokea
A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?
- A. Breast tenderness
- B. Tinnitus
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Chills
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast tenderness. Clomiphene citrate is a medication commonly used to treat infertility by stimulating ovulation. Breast tenderness is a common side effect due to the hormonal changes it induces, as it can lead to increased estrogen levels. This is important for the nurse to include in teaching as it prepares the client for a potential adverse effect.
B: Tinnitus, C: Urinary frequency, D: Chills are not typically associated with clomiphene citrate use. Tinnitus is more commonly linked to ototoxic medications, urinary frequency is not a known side effect of clomiphene, and chills are not a typical reaction to this medication. It is essential for the nurse to focus on the most relevant and common adverse effects to ensure the client's understanding and safety.
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A nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a newborn about the Plastibell circumcision technique. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. The Plastibell will be removed 4 hours after the procedure.
- B. Make sure the newborn’s diaper is snug.
- C. Yellow exudate will form at the surgical site in 24 hours.
- D. Notify the provider if the end of your baby’s penis appears dark red.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the provider if the end of your baby’s penis appears dark red. This is important to monitor for signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, or discharge. Yellow exudate forming in 24 hours (C) is incorrect as it may indicate infection. The Plastibell is typically removed after a few days, not 4 hours (A). Ensuring a snug diaper (B) is irrelevant to the circumcision technique.
A nurse manager on the labor and delivery unit is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about maternal cytomegalovirus. Which of the following information should the nurse manager include in the teaching?
- A. Mothers will receive prophylactic treatment with acyclovir prior to delivery.
- B. Transmission can occur via the saliva and urine of the newborn.
- C. Lesions are visible on the mother’s genitalia.
- D. This infection requires that airborne precautions be initiated for the newborn.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transmission can occur via the saliva and urine of the newborn. Maternal cytomegalovirus can be transmitted to the newborn through contact with infected bodily fluids such as saliva and urine. This is important for the nurses to understand as they care for both the mother and the newborn to prevent transmission.
Choice A is incorrect because acyclovir is not used to treat cytomegalovirus, but rather for other viral infections like herpes. Choice C is incorrect because lesions are not typically visible on the mother's genitalia with cytomegalovirus. Choice D is incorrect because airborne precautions are not necessary for cytomegalovirus transmission.
A nurse is assessing a newborn whose mother had gestational diabetes mellitus. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?
- A. Abdominal distention
- B. Petechiae
- C. Increased muscle tone
- D. Jitteriness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Jitteriness. Neonates born to mothers with gestational diabetes are at risk for hypoglycemia due to the abrupt cessation of the maternal glucose supply postnatally. Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. It is important for the nurse to monitor for this sign as it indicates the need for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Abdominal distention, petechiae, and increased muscle tone are not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns born to mothers with gestational diabetes.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for an amniocentesis. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should empty my bladder before the procedure.
- B. I will be lying on my side during the procedure.
- C. I will be asleep during the procedure.
- D. I should start fasting 24 hours before the procedure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. "I should empty my bladder before the procedure."
Rationale: Emptying the bladder before amniocentesis helps avoid accidental puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the needle's path, increasing the risk of injury. This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of bladder emptying.
Incorrect Choices:
B: "I will be lying on my side during the procedure." - Incorrect. The client will typically be lying flat on their back during amniocentesis.
C: "I will be asleep during the procedure." - Incorrect. Amniocentesis is usually done with local anesthesia, so the client will be awake.
D: "I should start fasting 24 hours before the procedure." - Incorrect. Fasting is not required for amniocentesis. It is a simple procedure that does not involve general anesthesia or fasting.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Coombs test result
- B. Mucous membrane assessment
- C. Intake and output
- D. Respiratory rate
- E. Head assessment finding
- F. Heart rate
- G. Sclera color
Correct Answer: A,B,C,G
Rationale: The correct answers to report to the provider are A, B, C, and G.
A: Coombs test result is crucial for diagnosing hemolytic anemia.
B: Mucous membrane assessment reflects hydration and oxygenation status.
C: Intake and output are vital for monitoring fluid balance.
G: Sclera color can indicate jaundice or liver dysfunction.
Other choices like D, E, and F are important assessments but not as critical for immediate provider notification. The respiratory rate (D) and heart rate (F) are essential vital signs but can be monitored routinely. Head assessment findings (E) can be important but may not require immediate provider notification unless there is a significant change.