Nokea
A nurse is teaching about the energy needed at rest to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time. What is the nurse discussing?
- A. Resting energy expenditure (REE)
- B. Basal metabolic rate (BMR)
- C. Nutrient density
- D. Nutrients
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal metabolic rate (BMR). BMR refers to the minimum amount of energy required to maintain basic physiological functions at rest. It accounts for about 60-75% of total energy expenditure. It is essential for sustaining life-sustaining activities such as breathing, circulating blood, and maintaining body temperature.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Resting energy expenditure (REE) is the total amount of energy expended by the body while at rest, including BMR and additional energy for daily activities.
C: Nutrient density refers to the amount of nutrients per calorie in a food item, not the energy needed at rest.
D: Nutrients are essential substances in food required for growth, maintenance, and repair, but they do not specifically refer to the energy needed at rest.
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A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority?
- A. Oral temperature of 100F
- B. Tachypnea and restlessness
- C. Frequent loose stools
- D. Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachypnea and restlessness. This observation takes immediate priority as it indicates potential respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia in HIV patients. Tachypnea can be a sign of hypoxia, while restlessness may indicate increased work of breathing. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Choice A: Oral temperature of 100F is not an immediate priority as it is within normal range and may not directly impact the patient's immediate condition.
Choice C: Frequent loose stools may suggest gastrointestinal issues but are not as urgent as respiratory distress in this scenario.
Choice D: Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday, while relevant in monitoring the patient's condition, does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.
A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what?
- A. Urinary tract infection
- B. Chronic pain
- C. Permanent vascular damage
- D. Future erectile dysfunction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Permanent vascular damage. Priapism is a prolonged erection that can lead to ischemia and damage to the penile tissue due to impaired blood flow, potentially resulting in permanent vascular damage. Urinary tract infection (A) is unrelated to priapism. Chronic pain (B) may occur but is not the primary concern. Future erectile dysfunction (D) can result from priapism but is not as immediate or severe as permanent vascular damage. Therefore, C is the most critical consequence to address in priapism.
A patient with a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is overwhelmed by his diagnosis and the known complications of the disease. How can the patient best make known his wishes for care as his disease progresses?
- A. Prepare an advance directive.
- B. Designate a most responsible physician (MRP) early in the course of the disease.
- C. Collaborate with representatives from the Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Association.
- D. Ensure that witnesses are present when he provides instruction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare an advance directive. This allows the patient to document their healthcare preferences in advance, ensuring their wishes are known and honored as the disease progresses. It provides clear instructions for healthcare providers and family members, reducing potential conflicts and ensuring the patient's autonomy is respected.
Choice B is incorrect as designating an MRP focuses on medical decision-making but may not capture the full range of the patient's care preferences. Choice C involves collaboration with an organization, which may not fully represent the patient's individual wishes. Choice D is incorrect as witnesses are not always necessary for providing instructions, and the presence of witnesses does not guarantee that the patient's wishes will be followed accurately.
A patient has undergone diagnostic testing and has been diagnosed with otosclerosis? What ear structure is primarily affected by this diagnosis?
- A. Malleus
- B. Stapes
- C. Incus
- D. Tympanic membrane
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stapes. Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, causing the stapes bone to become fixed in place. This results in hearing loss due to the inability of the stapes to transmit sound vibrations to the inner ear. The malleus (choice A), incus (choice C), and tympanic membrane (choice D) are not primarily affected by otosclerosis. The malleus and incus are located in the middle ear but are not typically affected by otosclerosis. The tympanic membrane is part of the outer ear and is not directly involved in otosclerosis.
The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
- A. Rate of growth
- B. Ability to cause death
- C. Size of cells
- D. Cell contents E) Ability to spread
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.