Nokea
A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client's motivation?
- A. determining whether the client has any family or friends living nearby
- B. developing a lengthy discharge plan and reviewing it carefully with the client
- C. teaching the client about the disorder at the client's level of understanding
- D. making a referral to an area agency for client followup
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For maximum effectiveness, teach the client about the disorder at the client's level of understanding.
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During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?
- A. Spoken in a soft tone of voice by the nurse about 5 feet in front of the client
- B. Whispered by the nurse from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested
- C. Spoken by the nurse from the client's side in a normal tone of voice about 10 feet from the ear being tested
- D. Whispered at a distance of 20 feet by the nurse while he or she is standing in front of the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.
The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?
- A. Clozapine
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Ondansetron
- D. Haloperidol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.
When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
- B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
- C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
- D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.
When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.'
- B. Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse.'
- C. The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5-12 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you.'
- D. We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The guidelines for a fertility workup are to refer after the couple has not conceived after one year of unprotected intercourse. So, Choice 1 is technically correct, but it doesn't consider the immediate need for the couple to have some counseling. Choice 4 is the best answer because it gives the couple guidance now and the referral at the appropriate time. If the woman is over the age of 35, an earlier referral, at six to nine months of unprotected intercourse, is appropriate. It is true that the average time it takes a 25-year-old woman to conceive is 5.3 months, but that does not address the concern the client is expressing. Choice 4 is still the most caring and correct answer. Couples conceive within the first month of unprotected intercourse 20% of the time.
During a routine office visit, which of the following developmental milestones should the nurse screen for in a 6-month-old child?
- A. standing while holding something
- B. rolling over
- C. sitting up
- D. creeping
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct developmental milestone for a 6-month-old child that should be screened during a routine office visit is rolling over. At this age, infants typically start rolling over from their stomach to their back and vice versa. Sitting up usually occurs between 7 and 8 months, creeping between 9 and 10 months, and standing while holding something between 8 and 10 months. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are developmentally appropriate but not typically expected at 6 months of age.