Nokea
A nurse is working with a dying client and his family. Which communication technique is most important to use?
- A. Reflection
- B. Clarification
- C. Interpretation
- D. Active listening
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active listening. Active listening involves fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and remembering what is being said. In end-of-life care, it is crucial to provide emotional support and create a safe space for clients and their families to express their thoughts and feelings. Active listening helps the nurse to establish trust, show empathy, and validate the emotions of the clients and their families. Reflection (A), Clarification (B), and Interpretation (C) may be beneficial in certain situations, but in end-of-life care, active listening plays a pivotal role in fostering meaningful and supportive communication.
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A client asks nurse Carlos the rationale for giving multi-drug treatment for tuberculosis. Which is an appropriate response?
- A. multiple drugs allow reduced levels of drugs to be given
- B. multiple drugs reduce undesirable drug side-effect
- C. multiple drugs potentiate the action fo the drugs
- D. multiple drugs reduce development of resistant strains of the bacteria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using multiple drugs for tuberculosis reduces the development of resistant strains of the bacteria. When multiple drugs are used simultaneously, it decreases the likelihood of the bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps to ensure that the treatment remains effective over time.
Explanation for other choices:
A: While using multiple drugs may allow for reduced dosages, the primary rationale is not solely to administer lower levels of drugs.
B: Although using multiple drugs may help in managing side effects, the primary rationale is to prevent the development of resistant strains.
C: While multiple drugs may have a synergistic effect, the main purpose is to prevent resistance rather than potentiate the action of individual drugs.
A client has the following blood lab values: platelets 50,000/ul, RBC’s 3.5 (X 106), hemoglobin 10 g/dl, hematocrit 30 percent, WBCs 10,000/ul. Which nursing instruction should be included in the teaching plan?
- A. Bleeding precautions
- B. Isolation to prevent infection
- C. Seizure precautions
- D. Control of pain with analgesics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding precautions. With low platelets (50,000/ul), the client is at risk for bleeding. Platelets help with blood clotting, so precautions to prevent bleeding are essential. This includes avoiding activities that can cause injury, using a soft toothbrush, and reporting any signs of bleeding.
Summary:
B: Isolation to prevent infection - This is not related to the client's lab values.
C: Seizure precautions - Not relevant to the client's lab values.
D: Control of pain with analgesics - Pain management is not the priority given the client's lab values indicating a risk of bleeding.
Which white blood cells are involved in releasing histamine during an allergic reaction?
- A. Basophils
- B. Monocytes
- C. Eosinophils
- D. Neutrophils
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basophils. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that release histamine during allergic reactions. They contain granules filled with histamine, which is released when they encounter an allergen. Monocytes, eosinophils, and neutrophils do not release histamine during allergic reactions. Monocytes are involved in immune response and inflammation, eosinophils are responsible for combating parasitic infections, and neutrophils are primarily involved in fighting bacterial infections.
The nurse evaluates that furosemide IV is effective in treating pulmonary edema if which of the following patient signs or symptoms is resolved?
- A. Pedal edema
- B. Pink, frothy sputum
- C. Jugular vein distention
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink, frothy sputum. This is because pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. Furosemide IV is a diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body, including the lungs. Resolving pink, frothy sputum indicates that the treatment is effectively reducing the fluid in the lungs.
Incorrect choices:
A: Pedal edema - This refers to swelling in the feet and ankles, which is not directly related to pulmonary edema.
C: Jugular vein distention - This is a sign of heart failure, not specifically pulmonary edema.
D: Bradycardia - This is a slow heart rate and not a direct indicator of pulmonary edema resolution.
A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
- A. Related to visual field deficits
- B. Related to impaired balance
- C. Related to difficulty swallowing
- D. Related to psychomotor seizures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a client with a cerebellar brain tumor may experience impaired balance due to the cerebellum's role in coordinating voluntary movements and maintaining balance. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and other injuries. Visual field deficits, difficulty swallowing, and psychomotor seizures are not directly related to the cerebellum's functions in balance and coordination. Therefore, these choices are incorrect for this specific nursing diagnosis.