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A nurse manager is working to improve patient satisfaction on the unit. Which of the following best describes the nurse manager's role in this process?
- A. The nurse manager should set clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitor progress, and provide feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care.
- B. The nurse manager should gather data on patient satisfaction, identify areas for improvement, and implement strategies to enhance the patient experience.
- C. The nurse manager should develop a patient satisfaction improvement plan, set measurable goals, and track progress over time to ensure continuous improvement.
- D. The nurse manager should involve patients and families in the patient satisfaction improvement process, gather feedback, and use it to make improvements to care delivery.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse manager's role in improving patient satisfaction involves setting clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care. Choice B is incorrect as gathering data and implementing strategies are typically part of quality improvement initiatives but do not solely define the nurse manager's role. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse manager is responsible for setting expectations and monitoring progress rather than developing the improvement plan. Choice D is incorrect as involving patients and families and gathering feedback are important aspects, but the question specifically asks about the nurse manager's role, which primarily involves setting expectations, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff.
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How often should rotation sites for insulin injection be separated from one another?
- A. Every third day.
- B. Every week.
- C. Every 2-3 weeks.
- D. Every 2-4 weeks.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin injection sites should be rotated every 2-3 weeks to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A ('Every third day') is too frequent and does not allow enough time for the previous site to heal properly. Option B ('Every week') might not provide adequate time for the tissue to recover. Option D ('Every 2-4 weeks') could potentially lead to overuse of a single injection site, increasing the risk of lipodystrophy and inconsistent insulin absorption. Therefore, the recommended interval of every 2-3 weeks is optimal for insulin injection site rotation.
A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
- A. U waves
- B. Absent P waves
- C. Elevated T waves
- D. Elevated ST segment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous insulin
- B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first intervention in a client with DKA is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline for fluid resuscitation. This is crucial to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion, addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA. Administering insulin without addressing the dehydration can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but is not the first priority; potassium levels can shift with fluid resuscitation. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is helpful in assessing acid-base status but is not the initial priority compared to fluid resuscitation.
A female client with hypothyroidism (myxedema) is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. Which finding should Nurse Hans recognize as an adverse drug effect?
- A. Dysuria
- B. Leg cramps
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Blurred vision
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tachycardia is a potential adverse effect of levothyroxine, indicating overmedication. Dysuria (painful urination) is not typically associated with levothyroxine. Leg cramps are not a common adverse effect of levothyroxine. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine; instead, it may be a sign of other eye-related conditions or medication side effects.
The client is receiving dietary instructions for hypoparathyroidism. Which of the following dietary recommendations is appropriate?
- A. Increase intake of dairy products and green leafy vegetables
- B. Avoid foods high in calcium
- C. Consume a high-sodium diet
- D. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For clients with hypoparathyroidism, the appropriate dietary recommendation is to increase intake of calcium-rich foods like dairy products and green leafy vegetables to help manage hypocalcemia. This is because hypoparathyroidism leads to low levels of calcium in the blood, so increasing calcium intake through diet is essential. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in calcium (choice B) would exacerbate the hypocalcemia. Consuming a high-sodium diet (choice C) is not necessary for managing hypoparathyroidism. Limiting fluid intake (choice D) is not directly related to the dietary management of hypoparathyroidism.