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A nurse manager is working to improve patient satisfaction on the unit. Which of the following best describes the nurse manager's role in this process?
- A. The nurse manager should set clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitor progress, and provide feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care.
- B. The nurse manager should gather data on patient satisfaction, identify areas for improvement, and implement strategies to enhance the patient experience.
- C. The nurse manager should develop a patient satisfaction improvement plan, set measurable goals, and track progress over time to ensure continuous improvement.
- D. The nurse manager should involve patients and families in the patient satisfaction improvement process, gather feedback, and use it to make improvements to care delivery.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse manager's role in improving patient satisfaction involves setting clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care. Choice B is incorrect as gathering data and implementing strategies are typically part of quality improvement initiatives but do not solely define the nurse manager's role. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse manager is responsible for setting expectations and monitoring progress rather than developing the improvement plan. Choice D is incorrect as involving patients and families and gathering feedback are important aspects, but the question specifically asks about the nurse manager's role, which primarily involves setting expectations, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff.
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The client with type 2 DM is being instructed by the nurse about the importance of controlling blood glucose levels. The nurse should emphasize that uncontrolled blood glucose can lead to:
- A. Increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
- B. Improved wound healing.
- C. Reduced need for medication.
- D. Decreased risk of infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Uncontrolled blood glucose levels are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular complications, such as heart disease and stroke. High blood glucose levels can damage blood vessels over time, leading to atherosclerosis, which can increase the likelihood of heart disease and stroke. Improved wound healing (choice B) is not a consequence of uncontrolled blood glucose levels; in fact, high blood sugar levels can impair wound healing. Reduced need for medication (choice C) is inaccurate because uncontrolled blood glucose usually necessitates more medication to manage the condition. Decreased risk of infection (choice D) is also misleading as high blood glucose levels can compromise the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections.
How often should rotation sites for insulin injection be separated from one another?
- A. Every third day.
- B. Every week.
- C. Every 2-3 weeks.
- D. Every 2-4 weeks.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin injection sites should be rotated every 2-3 weeks to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A ('Every third day') is too frequent and does not allow enough time for the previous site to heal properly. Option B ('Every week') might not provide adequate time for the tissue to recover. Option D ('Every 2-4 weeks') could potentially lead to overuse of a single injection site, increasing the risk of lipodystrophy and inconsistent insulin absorption. Therefore, the recommended interval of every 2-3 weeks is optimal for insulin injection site rotation.
A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
- A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
- B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
- C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- D. Felodipine (Plendil)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.
After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
- A. Initiate insulin therapy.
- B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
- C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
- D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
Which of the following best describes the nurse's responsibility in obtaining informed consent?
- A. The nurse is responsible for ensuring that the patient understands the procedure and has the opportunity to ask questions.
- B. The nurse should ensure that the patient signs the consent form before the procedure begins.
- C. The nurse is responsible for witnessing the patient sign the consent form and documenting the event.
- D. The nurse should delegate the task of obtaining informed consent to another healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider, in this case, the nurse, ensures that the patient understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives before they agree to it. The nurse plays a crucial role in facilitating this understanding by explaining the information in a clear and understandable manner and providing the patient with the opportunity to ask questions. Choice B is incorrect because merely obtaining the patient's signature on the consent form does not ensure that the patient truly understands what they are consenting to. Choice C is not fully accurate as the nurse's role goes beyond just witnessing the signature; it involves actively ensuring the patient's comprehension. Choice D is incorrect as the responsibility of obtaining informed consent should not be delegated to another healthcare provider, as it is the nurse's duty to ensure proper communication and understanding with the patient.