Nokea
A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?
- A. Near vision
- B. Central vision
- C. Peripheral vision
- D. Ocular movements
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.
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The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?
- A. The client is allergic to strawberries
- B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
- C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
- D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 × 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.
A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?
- A. Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching for tremors
- B. Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex
- C. Depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah'
- D. Placing his or her hands on the client's shoulders and asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.
Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)?
- A. A client with renal impairment
- B. A client with hypertension
- C. A client with diabetes mellitus, type II
- D. A client with renal calculi (kidney stones)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiazides can elevate blood glucose by causing hypokalemia, which reduces insulin secretion, making them unsuitable for clients with type II diabetes.
The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.