ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

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A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?

  • A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
  • B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
  • C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
  • D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.

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Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary permeability and pain?

  • A. Serotonin
  • B. Histamine
  • C. Bradykinin
  • D. Nitric oxide
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinin is the correct answer. It is a potent mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and is responsible for the pain associated with inflammation. Serotonin and histamine are also mediators of inflammation, but they are not primarily known for increasing capillary permeability or inducing pain. Nitric oxide is involved in various physiological processes but is not a primary mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and pain.

A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?

  • A. The man will undergo conservative treatment for TB using adjuvant medications.
  • B. The man will be treated for TB using first-line antitubercular drugs.
  • C. The man will be monitored closely to determine if treatment is necessary.
  • D. The man will be screened again in 10 to 12 weeks to determine if he has developed active TB.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient is diagnosed with latent TB infection, the standard approach involves treating them with first-line antitubercular drugs to prevent the progression to active TB. Adjuvant medications are not typically used for latent TB. Close monitoring without initiating treatment can lead to the development of active TB, so immediate treatment is crucial. Screening the individual again in 10 to 12 weeks does not address the immediate need for treatment of latent TB, which is essential to prevent the progression of the disease.

What are direct effects of antibodies? (Select ONE that does not apply):

  • A. Neutralization
  • B. Agglutination
  • C. Precipitation
  • D. Phagocytosis
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The direct effects of antibodies include neutralization, agglutination, and precipitation. Antibodies neutralize pathogens by binding to them and preventing their harmful effects. Agglutination involves the clumping together of pathogens, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them. Precipitation refers to the process where antibodies bind to soluble antigens, forming large complexes that are easily removed from the body. Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is an indirect effect of antibodies where phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens opsonized by antibodies, not a direct effect.

A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?

  • A. Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density.
  • B. Raloxifene increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
  • C. Raloxifene stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
  • D. Raloxifene decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is indicated for the treatment of women with

  • A. uterine bleeding.
  • B. cervical cancer.
  • C. ovarian cancer.
  • D. fibromyalgia.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is commonly used to treat conditions like abnormal uterine bleeding, amenorrhea, and endometriosis. It helps regulate the menstrual cycle and reduce excessive bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, cervical cancer, is incorrect because Provera is not indicated for the treatment of cancer. Choice C, ovarian cancer, is also incorrect as Provera is not a primary treatment for ovarian cancer. Choice D, fibromyalgia, is unrelated to the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate.

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