Nokea
A nurse on an antepartum unit is caring for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has gestational diabetes and a fasting blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL (less than 95 mg/dL).
- B. A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and reports epigastric pain.
- C. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has an Hgb of 10.4 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).
- D. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and reports urinary frequency and dysuria.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because epigastric pain in a pregnant client at 34 weeks of gestation could indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. It requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. The other clients have less urgent issues that can be managed with ongoing monitoring and interventions. A: Gestational diabetes with a slightly elevated blood glucose level can be managed with adjustments to diet and medication. C: Mildly low hemoglobin levels can be addressed with iron supplementation and monitoring. D: Urinary frequency and dysuria in a client at 39 weeks of gestation are common symptoms of late-stage pregnancy and do not indicate a critical issue.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a newborn who was transferred to the nursery 30 min after birth because of mild respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Confirm the newborn's Apgar score.
- B. Verify the newborn's identification.
- C. Administer vitamin K to the newborn.
- D. Determine obstetrical risk factors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verify the newborn's identification. This is the first action the nurse should take because ensuring proper identification is crucial for providing safe and effective care. By verifying the newborn's identification, the nurse can confirm they are caring for the right baby, preventing any potential errors in treatment or medication administration. This step is essential in maintaining patient safety and preventing harm.
Confirming the Apgar score (choice A) can be important but is not the first priority in this scenario. Administering vitamin K (choice C) is a routine procedure but can be done after verifying identification. Determining obstetrical risk factors (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the immediate priority.
A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is receiving IV fluid replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 105/64 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate 98/min.
- C. Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr.
- D. Urine negative for ketones.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr. In hyperemesis gravidarum, decreased urine output can indicate dehydration, a serious complication. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to ensure prompt intervention. A: Blood pressure 105/64 mm Hg is within normal range for pregnancy. B: Heart rate 98/min may be slightly elevated but not concerning. D: Urine negative for ketones is expected with IV fluid replacement.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? Select all that apply.
- A. Respiratory findings
- B. Oxygen saturation
- C. Central nervous system findings
- D. Gastrointestinal findings
Correct Answer: C,D
Rationale: The nurse should report central nervous system (CNS) and gastrointestinal (GI) findings to the provider as they can indicate potential serious issues. CNS findings like altered mental status or neurological deficits may signal neurological problems. GI findings such as abdominal pain or bleeding may indicate gastrointestinal issues that require immediate attention. Respiratory findings (choice A) and oxygen saturation (choice B) are important but may not always require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal. The other choices are not directly related to urgent medical concerns. Reporting CNS and GI findings ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate intervention.
complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The client is at highest risk for developing ---evidenced by the client's ---
- A. Endometritis.
- B. Mastitis.
- C. Postpartum hemorrhage.
- D. Group B streptococcus positive status.
- E. Spontaneous vaginal delivery.
- F. Median episiotomy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Endometritis. The client is at highest risk for developing endometritis evidenced by the client's median episiotomy. Endometritis is an infection of the lining of the uterus and is commonly associated with invasive procedures like episiotomy. The incision from a median episiotomy provides a pathway for bacteria to enter the uterus, increasing the risk of infection. The other choices are incorrect because mastitis is related to breastfeeding, postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding after childbirth, group B streptococcus positive status is a risk for neonatal infection, and spontaneous vaginal delivery is a mode of delivery not directly related to endometritis.
A nurse is assessing a newborn 12 hr after birth. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Acrocyanosis.
- B. Transient strabismus.
- C. Jaundice.
- D. Caput succedaneum.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jaundice. Jaundice in a newborn within the first 24 hours may indicate pathological conditions such as hemolytic disease or liver dysfunction. It requires immediate evaluation and treatment. Acrocyanosis (A) is a common finding in newborns due to immature circulation. Transient strabismus (B) is often seen in newborns and typically resolves on its own. Caput succedaneum (D) is swelling on the newborn's scalp from pressure during birth, which is a normal finding.