Nokea
A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
- C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
- D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
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A newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5 cm) and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33 cm). The nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and it was a breech presentation delivered by cesarean section. What action should the nurse take based on this data?
- A. No action needs to be taken, it is normal for an infant born by cesarean section to have a small head circumference.
- B. Notify the pediatrician immediately. These signs support the possibility of hydrocephalus.
- C. Call these findings to the attention of the pediatrician. The head/chest ratio is abnormal.
- D. Record the findings on the chart. They are within normal limits.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
- A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
- B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
- C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
- D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.
A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Metronidazole
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Clindamycin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.
A client who is 5 days postpartum is being taught about signs of effective breastfeeding. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Feeling a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking
- B. Expecting the baby to have two to three wet diapers in a 24-hour period
- C. The baby's urine should appear dark and concentrated
- D. The breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Feeling a tugging sensation while the baby is sucking indicates an effective latch and milk transfer during breastfeeding. This sensation means that the baby is effectively drawing milk from the breast. Choice B is incorrect because infants should ideally have six to eight wet diapers in a 24-hour period to show adequate hydration. Choice C is incorrect as a dark and concentrated urine may indicate dehydration, which is not a sign of effective breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as the breast should soften after the baby breastfeeds, indicating that the baby has effectively emptied the breast of milk.
When discussing risk factors for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) with a group of pregnant clients, which ethnicity should the nurse identify as having the lowest incidence of GDM?
- A. Asian
- B. Non-Hispanic White American
- C. Hispanic
- D. African American
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Non-Hispanic White Americans have the lowest incidence of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) compared to other ethnicities. This is because GDM is more prevalent among certain ethnic groups, such as Asian, Hispanic, and African American populations. Asian individuals have an increased risk of developing GDM due to genetic factors, while Hispanic and African American populations have higher incidences of GDM due to lifestyle and genetic predispositions. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as Non-Hispanic White Americans generally have a lower risk of developing GDM.