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A nurse on an intensive care unit is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a head injury. Which of the following IV medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Dobutamine
- C. Mannitol
- D. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce cerebral edema by drawing water out of brain tissue. This helps decrease intracranial pressure in clients with head injuries. Propranolol (A) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension, not specifically for intracranial pressure. Dobutamine (B) is a beta-adrenergic agonist used for cardiac support, not for intracranial pressure. Chlorpromazine (D) is an antipsychotic medication and does not address intracranial pressure. In summary, Mannitol is the appropriate choice for managing increased intracranial pressure due to its osmotic diuretic properties.
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A nurse working in an outpatient clinic is planning a community education program about reproductive cancers. The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations as a possible indication of cervical cancer?
- A. Abnormal vaginal bleeding
- B. Frequent diarrhea
- C. Urinary hesitancy
- D. Unexplained weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abnormal vaginal bleeding. This is a possible indication of cervical cancer because it can be a symptom of cervical dysplasia or cervical cancer. Bleeding between periods, after intercourse, or post-menopausal bleeding may indicate cervical cancer. Frequent diarrhea (B), urinary hesitancy (C), and unexplained weight gain (D) are not typically associated with cervical cancer. Diarrhea and urinary hesitancy are more commonly linked to gastrointestinal or urinary issues, while unexplained weight gain may be indicative of hormonal imbalances or other health conditions unrelated to cervical cancer.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medications.
- B. Maintain the client on NPO status.
- C. Place the client in a supine position.
- D. Monitor the client for hypercalcemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain the client on NPO status. In acute pancreatitis, the pancreas is inflamed, leading to digestive enzyme release and potential autodigestion of pancreatic tissue. Keeping the client NPO (nothing by mouth) helps rest the pancreas by reducing stimulation of enzyme secretion. This allows the pancreas to heal and decreases the risk of further complications. Administering antihypertensive medications (A) is not typically a priority for acute pancreatitis. Placing the client in a supine position (C) may not directly impact the pancreatitis. Monitoring for hypercalcemia (D) is important in chronic pancreatitis but not typically a primary intervention in the acute phase.
A nurse is caring for a client who has cervical cancer and is receiving internal radiation therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Check if the radioactive device is in the correct position.
- B. Limit time for visitors to 2 hours per day.
- C. Ask visitors to remain 3 feet from the client.
- D. Keep lead-lined aprons in the client's room.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check if the radioactive device is in the correct position. This is crucial to ensure that the radiation therapy is being delivered accurately and effectively. By verifying the position of the radioactive device, the nurse can prevent potential harm to the client and ensure the success of the treatment.
Choice B is incorrect because limiting visitors' time does not directly relate to the safety and effectiveness of the radiation therapy. Choice C is incorrect as asking visitors to remain 3 feet away does not address the primary concern of verifying the device's position. Choice D is also incorrect as lead-lined aprons are typically used by healthcare providers during procedures, not by the client.
A nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous graft. Which of the following findings indicates adequate circulation of the graft?
- A. Palpable thrill
- B. Memorantake blood pressure
- C. Absence of a bruit
- D. Dilated appearance of the graft
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpable thrill. A palpable thrill indicates that there is adequate circulation of the arteriovenous graft. A thrill is a vibration felt over the graft site, which suggests that blood is flowing through the graft properly. A palpable thrill is a positive sign of good circulation.
The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Membranous blood pressure does not provide information about the circulation of the graft.
C: Absence of a bruit could indicate decreased or absent blood flow through the graft.
D: Dilated appearance of the graft does not necessarily indicate adequate circulation; it could be due to other reasons such as infection or inflammation.
A nurse is administering packed RBCs to a client. The client reports chills, lower back pain, and nausea 10 minutes after the infusion begins. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Collect a urine sample.
- B. Check the client's vital signs.
- C. Stop the infusion.
- D. Administer oxygen to the client.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the infusion. The client's symptoms suggest a transfusion reaction, which could be life-threatening. Stopping the infusion is the priority to prevent further harm. Checking vital signs can wait, as immediate action is needed. Collecting a urine sample is not urgent in this situation. Administering oxygen is not indicated unless the client shows signs of respiratory distress, which is not mentioned in the scenario.