Nokea
A nurse on an intensive care unit is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a head injury. Which of the following IV medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Dobutamine
- C. Mannitol
- D. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce cerebral edema by drawing water out of brain tissue. This helps decrease intracranial pressure in clients with head injuries. Propranolol (A) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension, not specifically for intracranial pressure. Dobutamine (B) is a beta-adrenergic agonist used for cardiac support, not for intracranial pressure. Chlorpromazine (D) is an antipsychotic medication and does not address intracranial pressure. In summary, Mannitol is the appropriate choice for managing increased intracranial pressure due to its osmotic diuretic properties.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Pad the upper two side rails of the client's bed.
- B. Keep a padded tongue blade at the client's bedside.
- C. Maintain peripheral IV access.
- D. Teach assistive personnel how to apply restraints.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintain peripheral IV access. This is important for clients with seizure disorders as they may require immediate administration of medications during or after a seizure. IV access allows for quick drug delivery.
Choice A is incorrect because padding the bed rails is not a standard intervention for seizure disorder.
Choice B is incorrect because a padded tongue blade is not necessary for managing seizures.
Choice D is incorrect because teaching assistive personnel to apply restraints is not a recommended intervention for clients with seizure disorders.
In summary, maintaining peripheral IV access is crucial for prompt medication administration during seizures, while the other choices are not directly related to managing seizures in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new onset of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS). Which of the following interventions by the nurse is the highest priority?
- A. Administer Insulin.
- B. Teach the client about manifestations of HHS.
- C. Measure the client's urinary output.
- D. Initiate IV fluid replacement.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Initiate IV fluid replacement. In hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS), the client is severely dehydrated due to high blood glucose levels. IV fluid replacement is the highest priority to rehydrate the client and improve circulation. Administering insulin (A) is important but not the highest priority as fluid replacement takes precedence. Teaching the client about manifestations of HHS (B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate priority. Measuring urinary output (C) is important to assess renal function but not as critical as rehydrating the client.
A nurse is assessing a preoperative client for allergies. Which of the following client statements would the nurse identify as a risk for an allergy to latex?
- A. I break out in a rash when I eat strawberries.'
- B. I often have diarrhea after eating scrambled eggs.'
- C. I have trouble breathing if I eat acidic foods.'
- D. I sometimes start to wheeze when I eat peanuts.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because wheezing after consuming peanuts indicates a potential allergic reaction, which could also extend to latex due to cross-reactivity. Peanuts and latex share similar proteins, leading to potential allergic responses. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate a direct correlation to latex allergy and are unrelated symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor serum blood glucose during infusion.
- B. Obtain the client's weight daily.
- C. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride if the solution is not available.
- D. Verify the solution with another RN prior to infusion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor serum blood glucose during infusion. This is crucial because TPN (total parenteral nutrition) is a high concentration of glucose and can lead to hyperglycemia. Regular monitoring helps in detecting and managing any glucose fluctuations promptly. Choice B is incorrect as daily weight is essential but not the priority when compared to monitoring glucose. Choice C is incorrect as infusing 0.9% sodium chloride as an alternative can lead to incompatible solutions and cause harm. Choice D is incorrect because verifying the solution with another RN is important for safety but does not address the immediate need for glucose monitoring.
A home health nurse is assessing a client who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following is an expected manifestation that poses a risk to the client's safety?
- A. Loss of hearing
- B. Paresthesia
- C. Muscle wasting
- D. Changes in vision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Paresthesia. Pernicious anemia leads to Vitamin B12 deficiency, causing nerve damage and paresthesia (tingling or burning sensation). This poses a risk to the client's safety as it can affect their balance and coordination, increasing the risk of falls and injuries. Loss of hearing (A), muscle wasting (C), and changes in vision (D) are potential manifestations of pernicious anemia but do not directly pose a risk to safety like paresthesia.