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A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving reports on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is receiving warfarin and has an INR of 3.3
- B. A client who has acute kidney injury, creatinine 4 mg/dL, and BUN 52 mg/dL
- C. A client who had an NG tube inserted 6 hours ago and has abdominal distention
- D. A client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat should be assessed first. This client may be experiencing airway obstruction due to hematoma or swelling, making it a priority. Options A, B, and C have concerning findings as well, but airway compromise takes precedence over other issues.
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A nurse is assessing a male adolescent client who has heart failure. Based on the client's chart, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Withhold spironolactone
- B. Administer ferrous sulfate
- C. Administer furosemide
- D. Withhold digoxin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to manage fluid retention, helping alleviate symptoms like edema and shortness of breath. Withholding spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, could lead to electrolyte imbalances. Administering ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia, not heart failure. Withholding digoxin, a medication used in heart failure to improve heart function, can worsen the client's condition.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the contractions are too frequent (tachysystole), and the fetal heart rate is elevated. Tachysystole can lead to decreased oxygen perfusion to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to both the mother and fetus. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the current situation, potentially leading to further complications. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the tachysystole and elevated fetal heart rate, making it an inappropriate choice.
A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has massive head trauma
- B. A client who has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
- C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
- D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, the nurse should prioritize the client with indications of hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is an immediate life-threatening condition resulting from severe blood loss, which can lead to organ failure and death. Prompt identification and treatment of hypovolemic shock are crucial to prevent further deterioration. While clients with massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, and open fractures require urgent care, hypovolemic shock takes precedence due to its rapid progression to a critical state.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Petechiae
- C. Change in mental status
- D. Edema
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.
A client wearing an arm cast reports numb fingers. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Place the arm in a dependent position
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Check the client's circulation
- D. Apply a warm compress to the fingers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's circulation. Numbness in the fingers may indicate compromised circulation or nerve damage. By assessing the circulation first, the nurse can ensure that the cast is not too tight, which could be cutting off blood flow. Option A is incorrect because placing the arm in a dependent position may worsen circulation issues. Option B is incorrect as administering pain medication does not address the underlying cause of numbness. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress could mask circulation issues and is not the priority in this situation.