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A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (APs) discussing a client in a hospital cafeteria, using the client's name and discussing details of the diagnosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Report the APs' behavior to the supervisor
- B. Complete an incident report regarding the APs' conversation
- C. Provide the APs with written documentation on confidentiality
- D. Tell the APs to discontinue their conversation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to tell the APs to discontinue their conversation. By stopping the conversation immediately, the nurse addresses the breach of client confidentiality on the spot. This action is crucial to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality. While further steps such as reporting the behavior or providing education on confidentiality may be necessary, the immediate priority is to stop the inappropriate discussion. Reporting the behavior to the supervisor or completing an incident report can come after the immediate issue is addressed. Providing written documentation on confidentiality may be helpful but is not the most urgent action needed in this situation.
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A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
- A. I cannot change my instructions once they are made
- B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives
- C. I need an attorney to witness my signature on the advance directives
- D. I have the right to refuse treatment
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement indicates an understanding of advance directives because advance directives allow individuals to express their treatment preferences, including the right to refuse treatment if they choose to do so. Choice A is incorrect because individuals can update or change their advance directives as needed. Choice B is incorrect because advance directives are based on the individual's preferences, not the doctor's approval. Choice C is incorrect as witnessing an advance directive typically requires a witness who is not an attorney, depending on the state's specific requirements.
A nurse is planning discharge teaching for cord care for the parent of a newborn. Which instructions would you include in the teaching?
- A. Contact provider if the cord turns black
- B. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily
- C. Keep the cord dry until it falls off
- D. The cord stump will fall off in ten days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching for cord care is to keep the cord dry until it falls off naturally. This helps prevent infection, as the cord typically falls off in 10-14 days, not within five days. Instructing the parent to contact the provider if the cord turns black (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of infection. Cleaning the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily (Choice B) is not recommended as it can delay healing. Stating that the cord stump will fall off in ten days (Choice D) provides a more accurate timeframe compared to the initial estimation of five days.
A client who is having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse, "It just doesn't seem worth it anymore. Why not end my misery?" Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Why do you think your life is not worth it anymore?
- B. Do you have a plan to end your life?
- C. I need to know what you mean by misery
- D. You can trust me and tell me what you're thinking
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate response by the nurse is to ask about the client's plan to end their life. This question helps to assess the severity of the client's suicidal ideation and the immediacy of the risk, allowing the nurse to determine the appropriate level of intervention. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the immediate risk assessment needed in this situation.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?
- A. Confusion
- B. Thirst
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Shakiness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.
During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?
- A. Client with cystic fibrosis who has a thick productive cough and reports thirst
- B. Client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
- C. Client with diabetes mellitus who has a morning fasting glucose of 185 mg/dL
- D. Client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should report the client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused to the provider first. Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis may indicate dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, both of which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. The other options indicate important assessments that require intervention but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.