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A nurse plans care based upon the fact that anticipatory grief:
- A. Is associated with fewer expressions of guilt
- B. Prevents development of symptoms of depression
- C. Requires a longer period of time to effect resolution
- D. Prevents development of symptoms of depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because anticipatory grief allows individuals to gradually accept the impending loss, leading to fewer feelings of guilt. This process helps the individual prepare emotionally and psychologically for the eventual loss, reducing guilt related to not being able to prevent it. Choice B is incorrect because anticipatory grief does not prevent symptoms of depression, but rather helps individuals cope with them. Choice C is incorrect as anticipatory grief does not necessarily require a longer period of time for resolution; it varies for each individual. Choice D is incorrect, as mentioned earlier, because anticipatory grief does not prevent symptoms of depression but helps individuals navigate through them.
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Which action will best facilitate the development of trust between a nurse and patient?
- A. Responding positively to the patient’s demands
- B. Clarifying with the patient whenever there is doubt
- C. Staying available to the patient for the entire shift
- D. Following through with whatever was promised
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, clarifying with the patient whenever there is doubt. This action shows active listening, respect, and a willingness to understand the patient's needs. By seeking clarification, the nurse demonstrates genuine interest in the patient's perspective, which helps build trust. Responding positively to demands (A) may not always be appropriate or feasible. Staying available for the entire shift (C) is important but not the sole factor in trust-building. Following through with promises (D) is crucial but does not address the patient's concerns or doubts directly. Clarifying doubts fosters clear communication and mutual understanding, establishing a foundation of trust.
A patient presents to the emergency department with mixed psychiatric symptoms. The admission nurse suspects the symptoms may be the result of a medical problem. Lab results show elevated BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine. What is the nurse’s next best action?
- A. Report the findings to the health care provider.
- B. Assess the patient for a history of renal problems.
- C. Assess the patient’s family history for cardiac problems.
- D. Arrange for the patient’s hospitalization on the psychiatric unit.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Reporting the findings to the health care provider is the next best action because elevated BUN and creatinine levels indicate possible renal dysfunction, which could be causing the psychiatric symptoms. The health care provider needs this information to determine appropriate treatment and further evaluation.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Assessing the patient for a history of renal problems is not the next best action because the lab results already indicate potential renal issues.
C: Assessing the patient’s family history for cardiac problems is irrelevant to the elevated BUN and creatinine levels and the psychiatric symptoms.
D: Arranging for the patient’s hospitalization on the psychiatric unit is premature without addressing the underlying medical issue indicated by the lab results.
Which patient behavior supports the diagnosis of residual schizophrenia with negative symptoms?
- A. Communicating using only rhyming phases
- B. Claims that worms are crawling in my brain
- C. Maintaining both arms suspended awkwardly overhead
- D. Shows no emotion when telling the story of a sister’s recent death
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because showing no emotion when discussing a personal tragedy is indicative of blunted affect, a negative symptom commonly seen in residual schizophrenia. This behavior aligns with the diagnostic criteria for residual schizophrenia, which includes the presence of negative symptoms like flat affect. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to negative symptoms of schizophrenia. A communicating style or claims about worms do not specifically indicate negative symptoms, and maintaining arms awkwardly overhead is not a typical symptom of residual schizophrenia.
What is the basis for the reduction in disturbed thought processes when a patient is administered haloperidol (Haldol)?
- A. Reduction in the number of brain cells that crave dopamin
- B. Dopamine receptors are enhanced, making more dopamine available.
- C. Medication causes an increased cellular production of dopamine
- D. Dopamine receptors are blocked, making dopamine less available.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because haloperidol is a dopamine receptor antagonist. By blocking dopamine receptors, it reduces the activity of dopamine in the brain, which helps in reducing disturbed thought processes. Option A is incorrect as dopamine craving is not related to the mechanism of action of haloperidol. Option B is incorrect as enhancing dopamine receptors would increase dopamine activity, opposite to the intended effect of haloperidol. Option C is incorrect as increasing cellular production of dopamine would also increase dopamine activity, contradicting the purpose of using haloperidol.
A nursing instructor is teaching about electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred?
- A. During ECT a state of euphoria is induced
- B. ECT induces a grand mal seizure.
- C. During ECT a state of catatonia is induced
- D. ECT induces a petit mal seizure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ECT induces a grand mal seizure. This indicates learning has occurred because ECT does indeed induce a controlled grand mal seizure to treat severe depression. Euphoria (A) and catatonia (C) are not accurate states induced by ECT. A petit mal seizure (D) is a mild form of seizure not associated with ECT.