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A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?
- A. Scoliosis
- B. Bone deformity
- C. Heberden nodules
- D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.
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A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
- C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
- D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.
When working with multicultural populations, the nurse should consider all of the following when planning care for a client with an altered sexuality pattern except:
- A. some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality.
- B. some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity.
- C. some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness.
- D. some Native-American women believe monthly menstruation maintains physical well-being and harmony.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When working with multicultural populations, it is essential to understand cultural variations in beliefs and practices related to sexuality. While it is true that some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity and that some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness, the statement 'some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality' is incorrect. In reality, many cultures, including Hispanic and Native-American cultures, are sometimes hesitant to discuss sexuality. For example, some Navajos, Hispanics, and Orthodox Jews may consider the postpartum period as impure, leading to seclusion of women until the end of bleeding, marked by a ritual bath. Additionally, many Native-American women believe in the importance of monthly menstruation for physical well-being and harmony. Therefore, the statement about Hispanic and Native-American cultures being very open about discussing sexuality is not accurate in the context of working with multicultural populations.
A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?
- A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
- B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
- C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
- D. The test results are normal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.
A healthcare professional reviewing a client's record notes documentation that the client has melena. How does the healthcare professional detect the presence of melena?
- A. By checking the client's urine for blood
- B. By checking the client's stool for blood
- C. By checking the client's urine for a decrease in output
- D. By checking the client's bowel movements for diarrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Melena' is the term used to describe abnormal black tarry stool that has a distinctive odor and contains digested blood. It usually results from bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract and is often a sign of peptic ulcer disease or small bowel disease. The presence of melena is detected by checking the client's stool for blood. Blood in the client's urine, decreased urine output, and diarrhea are not associated with the assessment for melena.
A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?
- A. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows and looking for symmetry
- B. Asking the client to clench the teeth, then palpating the masseter muscles just above the mandibular angle
- C. Asking the client to close the eyes and then identify light and sharp touch with a cotton ball and a pin on both sides of the face
- D. Asking the client to close their eyes and then indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse brings the watch closer to the client's ear
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).