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A nurse reviews prescriptions for an 82-year-old client with a fractured left hip. Which prescription should alert the nurse to contact the provider and express concerns for client safety?
- A. Meperidine (Demerol) 30 mg IV every 4 hours.
- B. Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with morphine sulfate.
- C. Percocet 2 tablets orally every 6 hours PRN for pain.
- D. Percocet 2 tablets every 6 hours for pain.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Meperidine (Demerol) should not be used for older adults because it has toxic metabolites that can cause seizures. The nurse should question this prescription. The other prescriptions are appropriate for this client's pain management.
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A nurse plans care for a client who is prescribed skeletal traction. Which intervention should the nurse include in this plan of care to decrease the client's risk for infection?
- A. Wash the traction lines and sockets once a day.
- B. Release traction tension for 30 minutes twice a day.
- C. Do not place the traction weights on the floor.
- D. Schedule for pin care to be provided every shift.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To decrease the risk for infection in a client with skeletal traction or external fixation, the nurse should provide routine pin care and assess manifestations of infection at the pin sites every shift. The traction lines and sockets are external and do not come in contact with the client's skin, so these do not need to be washed. Releasing traction tension requires a prescription, and placing weights on the floor does not directly decrease infection risk.
A nurse assesses a client with a rotator cuff injury. Which finding should the nurse expect to assess?
- A. Stability to maintain abduction of the affected arm for more than 90 seconds.
- B. Shoulder pain that is relieved with overhead stretches and at night.
- C. Inability to initiate or maintain abduction of the affected arm at the shoulder.
- D. Referred pain to the shoulder and arm opposite the affected shoulder.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with a rotator cuff tear are unable to initiate or maintain abduction of the affected arm at the shoulder. This is known as the drop arm test. The client should not have difficulty with adduction of the arm, nor experience pain relief with overhead stretches. Pain is usually more intense at night and with related activities, and referred pain to the opposite shoulder is not typical.
Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care for a client recovering from a below-the-knee amputation?
- A. Place pillows between the client's knees.
- B. Encourage range-of-motion exercises.
- C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Implement strict bedrest in a supine position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a below-the-knee amputation should complete range-of-motion exercises to prevent flexion contractures and prepare for a prosthesis. A pillow may be used under the limb as support. Clients recovering from this type of amputation are at low risk for infection and should not be prescribed prophylactic antibiotics. The client should be encouraged to reposition, move, and exercise frequently, and therefore should not implement strict bedrest.
A nurse cares for a client with a fractured fibula. Which assessment should alert the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Pain of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10.
- B. Numbness in the extremity.
- C. Swollen extremity at the injury site.
- D. Feeling cold while lying in bed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client with numbness and/or tingling of the extremity may be displaying the first signs of acute compartment syndrome. This is an acute problem that requires immediate intervention because of possible decreased circulation. Moderate pain and swelling are expected after a fracture and can be treated with comfort measures. Feeling cold can be addressed with additional blankets or increasing the room temperature.
An emergency nurse assesses a client who is admitted with a pelvic fracture. Which assessments should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Temperature
- B. Urinary output
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Pulse rate
- E. Level of consciousness
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Rationale: A client with a pelvic fracture is at risk for complications such as internal bleeding, infection, and shock. Monitoring temperature can indicate infection, urinary output can reflect kidney function or hypovolemia, blood pressure and pulse rate can indicate hemodynamic stability, and level of consciousness can signal neurological changes or shock. These assessments are critical for client safety.