Nokea
A nurse working in a rehabilitation facility is developing a discharge plan for a client who has left-sided hemiplegia. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Consult with a case manager regarding insurance coverage.
- B. Counsel caregivers on respite care options.
- C. Ensure that the client has a referral for physical therapy.
- D. Refer the client to a local stroke support group.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ensure that the client has a referral for physical therapy.' For a client with left-sided hemiplegia, physical therapy is crucial in restoring function and mobility. It is the nurse's priority to ensure the client receives the necessary rehabilitation services. Consulting with a case manager about insurance coverage (Choice A) is important but not the priority at this stage. Counseling caregivers on respite care options (Choice B) and referring the client to a local stroke support group (Choice D) are also valuable but not as essential as ensuring the client has access to physical therapy for rehabilitation.
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A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone IM to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication using a tuberculin syringe
- B. Administer the medication at a 45-degree angle
- C. Use the dorsogluteal muscle for injection
- D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: When administering intramuscular injections like ceftriaxone, it is essential to aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication to ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. Choices A and B are incorrect because ceftriaxone is typically administered using a syringe appropriate for IM injections (not a tuberculin syringe) and injected at a 90-degree angle rather than 45 degrees. Choice C is incorrect because the dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for IM injections due to potential injury to the sciatic nerve and other structures.
A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Apply fetal heart rate monitor
- C. Initiate fundal massage
- D. Initiate an oxytocin IV infusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Applying a fetal heart rate monitor is the priority action in this scenario as it helps assess the well-being of the fetus during labor. This monitoring is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress and guide interventions. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) is not a priority at this time unless there are specific indications. Initiating fundal massage (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the focus should be on fetal assessment. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion (Choice D) is not indicated until the stage of labor and the progress of labor are determined.
A client is receiving discharge teaching about a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with milk.
- B. I should expect my stools to turn black.
- C. I should avoid eating oranges while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When taking ferrous sulfate, clients should expect their stools to turn black, which is a normal side effect due to the iron content. Choice A is incorrect because ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because vitamin C-rich foods like oranges can actually enhance the absorption of iron. Choice D is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.
A client with heart failure is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should weigh myself once a week.
- B. I should limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- C. I should report a weight gain of 2 pounds in one day.
- D. I should reduce my protein intake to prevent fluid retention.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting a sudden weight gain of 2 pounds in one day is crucial in managing heart failure because it can indicate fluid retention, a common symptom in heart failure. Option A is incorrect as weighing oneself once a week may not provide timely information about fluid retention. Option B is incorrect because fluid intake restriction is individualized and generally involves more specific guidance. Option D is incorrect as protein intake is important but reducing it solely to avoid fluid retention is not the primary focus in heart failure management.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased shortness of breath.
- B. Decreased peripheral edema.
- C. Increased jugular venous distention.
- D. Increased heart rate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.