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A nurse works with an AP assigned to bathe a client with herpes zoster. The AP asks if it is contagious. What should the nurse say?
- A. Herpes zoster is not contagious to people who have had chickenpox.
- B. Herpes zoster spreads through the air.
- C. Herpes zoster is highly contagious to everyone.
- D. Herpes zoster only spreads through blood contact.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. Individuals who have had chickenpox in the past are not at risk of getting shingles from someone with herpes zoster. The virus is not transmitted through the air (choice B) or through blood contact only (choice D). It is not highly contagious to everyone (choice C). By explaining to the AP that herpes zoster is not contagious to individuals who have had chickenpox, the nurse provides accurate information and helps alleviate concerns about the spread of the virus.
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A nurse is completing discharge teaching with a client following arthroscopic knee surgery. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Keep the knee elevated above the heart at all times.
- B. Avoid physical therapy for 2 weeks.
- C. Apply ice to the affected area.
- D. Limit fluid intake to reduce swelling.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apply ice to the affected area. Ice application helps reduce swelling and pain post-surgery. Keeping the knee elevated above the heart (A) is important, but not at all times as it can lead to other issues like blood pooling. Avoiding physical therapy for 2 weeks (B) is incorrect as early mobilization is crucial for recovery. Limiting fluid intake (D) is not recommended as hydration is essential for healing.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the purpose of a CA 125 test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A CA 125 test is used to monitor a client's progress during treatment of ovarian cancer.
- B. A CA 125 test is used to detect pregnancy.
- C. A CA 125 test is used to diagnose cervical cancer.
- D. A CA 125 test is used to screen for prostate cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A CA 125 test is used to monitor a client's progress during treatment of ovarian cancer. This is because CA 125 is a biomarker that is commonly elevated in ovarian cancer patients. Monitoring CA 125 levels helps healthcare providers assess the effectiveness of treatment and detect any recurrence of the disease.
Choice B is incorrect because a CA 125 test is not used to detect pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect because a CA 125 test is not used to diagnose cervical cancer; it is primarily associated with ovarian cancer. Choice D is incorrect because a CA 125 test is not used to screen for prostate cancer; it is specific to ovarian cancer.
A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen.
- B. DIC is caused by increased fibrinogen levels.
- C. DIC is caused by a reduction in platelet production.
- D. DIC is caused by a decrease in clotting factors.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because DIC is characterized by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen. In septic shock, the body's response triggers widespread activation of the coagulation system, leading to the consumption of clotting factors like fibrinogen. This results in the formation of microclots throughout the body, leading to organ dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as DIC is not caused by increased fibrinogen levels, a reduction in platelet production, or a decrease in clotting factors. It is essential for the nurse to emphasize the role of abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen in DIC to help the client understand the pathology and potential complications associated with septic shock.
A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?
- A. pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg
- B. pH 7.40, HCO3- 24 mEq/L, PaCO2 38 mm Hg
- C. pH 7.45, HCO3- 28 mEq/L, PaCO2 40 mm Hg
- D. pH 7.50, HCO3- 30 mEq/L, PaCO2 45 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg). In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to excrete acid effectively, leading to metabolic acidosis. The pH is low (acidotic) due to the accumulation of acids. The bicarbonate (HCO3-) is low (19 mEq/L) as the kidneys are unable to reabsorb and regenerate bicarbonate effectively. The PaCO2 is low (30 mm Hg) as the respiratory system compensates by increasing the respiratory rate to blow off carbon dioxide in an attempt to normalize the pH. Choices B, C, and D have pH values within normal range and do not reflect the expected acidosis in chronic kidney disease.
A nurse is discharging a child who has sickle cell anemia after an acute crisis episode. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Offer fluids to your child multiple times every day
- B. Offer fluids only during fever episodes.
- C. Give fluids only if the child asks for them.
- D. Limit fluid intake during a crisis to reduce swelling.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Offer fluids to your child multiple times every day. This is important in sickle cell anemia to prevent dehydration and promote good blood flow, reducing the risk of sickling and subsequent crisis episodes. Adequate hydration helps maintain the flexibility of red blood cells and prevents them from clumping together. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting fluid intake can lead to dehydration and worsen the symptoms of sickle cell anemia during and after a crisis episode. It is essential to encourage regular fluid intake to keep the child well-hydrated and prevent complications.