Nokea
A nurse would assess for which feature in a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa without bingeing or purging?
- A. Extroverted personality traits
- B. Abuse of diuretics and laxatives
- C. Claims of sexual activity
- D. Denial of hunger at all times
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Denial of hunger at all times. In anorexia nervosa without bingeing or purging, patients typically deny hunger despite severe weight loss. This is due to their distorted body image and fear of gaining weight. Assessing for denial of hunger helps in understanding their mindset and severity of the disorder.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Extroverted personality traits - Anorexia nervosa is often associated with introverted personality traits, not extroverted.
B: Abuse of diuretics and laxatives - This behavior is more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa without bingeing or purging.
C: Claims of sexual activity - This choice is unrelated to the typical features of anorexia nervosa without bingeing or purging.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 19-year-old client is admitted for the second time in 9 months and is acutely psychotic with a diagnosis of undifferentiated schizophrenia. The client sits alone rubbing her arms and smiling. She tells the nurse her thoughts cause earthquakes and that the world is burning. The nurse assesses the primary deficit associated with the client's condition as:
- A. Altered mood states
- B. Disturbed thinking
- C. Social isolation
- D. Poor impulse control
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed thinking. In this scenario, the client's belief that her thoughts cause earthquakes and the world is burning are examples of delusions, which are a key symptom of schizophrenia. This demonstrates a disturbance in the client's thought process, indicating a primary deficit in thinking. Altered mood states (A) may be present as well but are not the primary deficit in this case. Social isolation (C) is a consequence of the client's symptoms rather than the primary deficit. Poor impulse control (D) is not the primary issue presented in the scenario.
At 11:00 AM, a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits concrete thinking asks the nurse for PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). However, he last had it at 8:00 AM, and it is ordered only every 4 hours. Which nursing response would be most therapeutic?
- A. I'm sorry, it's not quite time yet; please come back again in 1 hour.'
- B. I'm sorry, it's not quite time yet; please come back again at 12 noon.'
- C. It's not time yet; please come back when both hands of the clock point straight up.'
- D. It's not time yet; I will let you know when it is time. Perhaps a nap would help?'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a clear, concrete instruction that the patient can easily understand. By stating "come back when both hands of the clock point straight up," the nurse offers a specific and visual cue for the patient to know when it's time for the medication. This approach aligns with the patient's concrete thinking and helps him grasp the concept of time more effectively.
Choice A is incorrect because stating "in 1 hour" may be too abstract for a patient with concrete thinking. Choice B is also incorrect as it provides a general time frame without a visual reference, which may confuse the patient. Choice D is incorrect as suggesting a nap does not address the patient's request for medication and does not provide a clear time frame.
Which information should the nurse include when teaching a client with a personality disorder?
- A. Journal writing will help you recognize feeling states.'
- B. Try problem solving independently to help with difficult relationships.'
- C. Identify people and circumstances that create conflict; then avoid them.'
- D. Try to alleviate behaviors that cause problems relating with others.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because journal writing can help individuals with personality disorders recognize and better understand their emotions, leading to improved self-awareness and emotional regulation. This can be a useful tool in therapy and self-management.
Choice B is incorrect because individuals with personality disorders often struggle with interpersonal relationships and might benefit from seeking support or guidance rather than attempting to solve problems independently.
Choice C is incorrect because avoidance does not address the underlying issues and can lead to isolation and maladaptive coping mechanisms.
Choice D is incorrect because simply trying to alleviate problematic behaviors without addressing the underlying emotional issues may not lead to long-term improvement in relationships.
A client with schizophrenia is medication compliant and has well-controlled symptoms. He has, however, never been successful in holding a job because of poor social skills and lack of understanding of basic job skills. The nurse case manager should consider referring the client:
- A. To a day hospital program
- B. For psychosocial rehabilitation
- C. For cognitive therapy
- D. To assertiveness training
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For psychosocial rehabilitation. This option is the most appropriate because the client is struggling with social skills and job-related skills. Psychosocial rehabilitation programs focus on improving social and vocational skills, which are essential for the client to succeed in holding a job. These programs also provide support and training tailored to the individual's needs. Referring the client to a day hospital program (A) may not address his specific vocational needs. Cognitive therapy (C) primarily focuses on addressing cognitive distortions and may not directly target social and vocational skills. Assertiveness training (D) may be helpful but may not fully address the client's broader vocational challenges.
A client with antisocial personality disorder yells, 'Shut up about that, or I'll punch you in the nose!' and shakes his fist at another client in a group meeting after the client speaks negatively of illicit drug use. The nurse quickly determines that the client is at risk to act violently against others as evidenced by his aggressive behavior, verbal threats, and a history of impulsivity. Which is the best approach for the nurse to use?
- A. Seclude the client to protect the other clients and staff.
- B. Put the client in restraints to protect the milieu.
- C. Explore alternate ways to handle frustrating topics in the group.
- D. Tell the client to leave the group until he can behave appropriately.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Explore alternate ways to handle frustrating topics in the group. This approach is best because it focuses on addressing the underlying issue causing the client's aggression rather than just isolating or restraining the client. By exploring alternate ways to handle frustrating topics, the nurse can help the client develop healthier coping mechanisms and communication skills. This approach promotes therapeutic engagement and supports the client's growth and development.
Secluding the client (choice A) may escalate the situation and reinforce the client's aggressive behavior. Putting the client in restraints (choice B) is a restrictive measure that should only be used as a last resort for imminent danger. Telling the client to leave the group (choice D) may not address the root cause of the aggression and could lead to avoidance of addressing the client's issues.