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A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride elixir 20 mEq/day PO to divide equally every 12 hr. Available is 6.7 mEq/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
Correct Answer: 7.5
Rationale: The correct answer is 7.5 mL. To determine this, first calculate the total daily dose: 20 mEq/day ÷ 2 doses/day = 10 mEq/dose. Next, find the mL per dose using the available concentration: 10 mEq ÷ 6.7 mEq/5 mL = 7.46 mL, which rounds to 7.5 mL. This ensures the patient receives the correct dose of potassium chloride elixir. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation or rounding process, leading to potential under or overdosing.
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A nurse inadvertently administers 160 mg of valsartan PO to a client who was scheduled to receive 80 mg. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take?
- A. Evaluate the client for orthostatic hypotension.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Obtain the client's laboratory results.
- D. Check the client for nasal congestion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluate the client for orthostatic hypotension. This is the priority because an overdose of valsartan, a medication used to treat hypertension, can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a potential complication that can result from this overdose, and it requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications such as falls or decreased perfusion to vital organs. Monitoring urine output (B) is important for some medications but is not the priority in this case. Obtaining laboratory results (C) may be necessary in the long term but is not urgent in this situation. Checking for nasal congestion (D) is not relevant to the issue at hand.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. Upon analyzing the assessment findings, the nurse identifies that the client is at risk for Select... due to the Select...
- A. concurrent medication use
- B. recent illness
- C. activity level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: concurrent medication use. The nurse identifies the client is at risk for adverse drug interactions or side effects due to the potential interactions between medications. Recent illness (B) may impact the client's health but does not specifically relate to medication use. Activity level (C) is important but does not directly indicate medication risk. Without options D, E, F, and G, they cannot be considered as potential correct choices.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following predisposes this client to developing digoxin toxicity?
- A. Taking a high ceiling diuretic
- B. Having a 10-year history of COPD
- C. Having a prolapsed mitral valve
- D. Taking an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Taking a high ceiling diuretic. High ceiling diuretics, such as furosemide, can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the Na+/K+-ATPase pump in the heart, so low potassium levels can lead to an increased concentration of digoxin in the body, predisposing the client to toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly impact digoxin levels or toxicity. A history of COPD (B) or a prolapsed mitral valve (C) do not specifically predispose a client to digoxin toxicity. Taking an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (D) does not interact directly with digoxin.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the administration of omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. You cannot take this medication with an antacid.
- B. You should reduce your intake of calcium while taking this medication.
- C. You should take this medication before meals.
- D. You can take a second dose if symptoms persist up to 2 hours after the first dose.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit gastric acid secretion. This timing ensures optimal effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because omeprazole can be taken with antacids, but it is recommended to be taken separately. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to reduce calcium intake while taking omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect as taking a second dose without medical advice may lead to overdosing and adverse effects.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a third-degree perineal laceration. The client reports not having a bowel movement
for 4 days. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Bisacodyl 10 mg per rectum
- B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 mL PO
- C. Famotidine 20 mg PO
- D. Loperamide 4 mg PO
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bisacodyl 10 mg per rectum. Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that helps stimulate bowel movements. Given the client's situation of not having a bowel movement for 4 days postpartum with a third-degree perineal laceration, prompt relief is needed to prevent complications such as constipation or increased pressure on the perineal area. Administering Bisacodyl per rectum will provide a faster onset of action compared to oral medications, ensuring timely relief for the client.
Choice B: Magnesium hydroxide is a laxative used for constipation but may not provide immediate relief for the client in this urgent situation.
Choice C: Famotidine is a histamine-2 blocker used for managing stomach acid but is not indicated for addressing constipation.
Choice D: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal medication and is contraindicated in this scenario as it can worsen constipation.