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A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed w/severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). The nurse is aware that health care professionals are required to report communicable & infectious diseases. Which of the following illustrate the rationale for reporting? Select all.
- A. Planning & evaluating control & prevention strategies
- B. Determining public health priorities
- C. Ensuring proper medical treatment
- D. Identifying endemic disease
- E. Monitoring for common-source outbreaks
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, C, and E. Reporting communicable diseases like SARS is crucial for planning and evaluating control and prevention strategies. It helps in determining public health priorities by identifying trends and areas that require attention. Reporting ensures proper medical treatment for the affected individuals and their contacts, preventing further spread. Additionally, monitoring for common-source outbreaks allows for timely intervention to limit the spread of the disease. Choices D, F, and G are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the rationale for reporting communicable diseases in this context.
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A nurse is caring for a client who presents with linear clusters of fluid-containing vesicles with some crusting. Which of the following should the nurse suspect?
- A. Allergic reaction
- B. Ringworm
- C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
- D. Herpes zoster
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Herpes zoster. The presentation of linear clusters of fluid-containing vesicles with crusting is characteristic of herpes zoster, also known as shingles. This viral infection is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which initially causes chickenpox. The linear distribution of the vesicles along a dermatome is a key feature of herpes zoster. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Allergic reactions typically present with hives or itching, not vesicles with crusting. B: Ringworm presents as circular, red, scaly patches, not linear clusters of vesicles. C: Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that manifests with a butterfly rash on the face, joint pain, and other systemic symptoms, not vesicles. Therefore, the nurse should suspect herpes zoster based on the presentation described.
A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 minutes. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
Correct Answer: 83
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we can use the formula: Drip rate = (Volume to be infused in gtt) / Time in minutes. In this case, the volume to be infused is 250 mL, and the time is 30 minutes. Convert 250 mL to drops: 250 mL x 10 gtt/mL = 2500 gtt. Now, divide 2500 gtt by 30 minutes to get 83.33 gtt/min. Since we can't administer a fraction of a drop, we round down to the nearest whole number, which is 83 gtt/min. This rate ensures the 0.9% NaCl solution is administered accurately over the specified time. Other choices are incorrect because they do not result from the correct calculation based on the given information.
A nurse is reviewing the CDC's immunization recommendations with a young adult client. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in this discussion? Select all.
- A. Human papillomavirus
- B. Measles, mumps, rubella
- C. Varicella
- D. Haemophilus influenzae type b
- E. Polio
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: The correct answer includes Human papillomavirus (HPV), Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR), and Varicella vaccines. These vaccines are recommended by the CDC for young adults to prevent serious diseases. HPV vaccine helps prevent certain types of cancers, MMR protects against highly contagious viral infections, and Varicella prevents chickenpox. The incorrect choices, Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) and Polio, are typically given during infancy and are not part of routine vaccinations for young adults. In summary, the correct recommendations focus on preventing common infections in this age group, while the incorrect choices are either not relevant or administered at a different life stage.
A nurse educator is teaching a module on pharmacokinetics to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the 1st-pass effect?
- A. Some meds block normal receptor activity regulated by endogenous compounds or receptor activity caused by other meds.
- B. Some meds may have to be administered by a nonenteral route to avoid inactivation as they travel through the liver.
- C. Some meds leave the body more slowly & therefore have a greater risk of accumulation & toxicity.
- D. Some meds have a wide safety margin, so there is no need for routine serum medication level monitoring.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. The 1st-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation.
2. Medications administered orally undergo first-pass metabolism in the liver, leading to potential inactivation.
3. Administering such meds through nonenteral routes (e.g., intravenous) bypasses the liver, avoiding inactivation.
4. Choice A discusses receptor activity, not related to the first-pass effect.
5. Choice C refers to drug elimination rate, not specific to the first-pass effect.
6. Choice D discusses safety margin and monitoring, not directly related to drug metabolism.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings. What is the highest priority intervention when the nurse suspects aspiration?
- A. Auscultate breath sounds.
- B. Stop the feeding.
- C. Obtain a chest x-ray.
- D. Initiate oxygen therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stop the feeding. Aspiration can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Stopping the feeding immediately is crucial to prevent further aspiration and minimize harm to the client. Auscultating breath sounds (choice A) is important but should be done after stopping the feeding. Obtaining a chest x-ray (choice C) may be necessary later for further evaluation but is not the highest priority in this situation. Initiating oxygen therapy (choice D) may be needed depending on the client's condition, but it is not the highest priority when aspiration is suspected.