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A patient admitted for management of sepsis is critically ill and wants to talk with a hospital representative about donating her organs if she dies. She has a fairly complex medical history that includes traumatic brain injury, breast cancer, and dialysis-dependent renal failure. The patient is advised that she is ineligible to donate due to her
- A. Renal failure
- B. Traumatic brain injury
- C. Gram negative infection
- D. Breast cancer
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast cancer. The patient's breast cancer is the reason she is ineligible to donate organs. Breast cancer is a contraindication for organ donation due to the risk of cancer transmission to the recipient. Traumatic brain injury (choice B) and renal failure (choice A) are not absolute contraindications to organ donation. Gram-negative infection (choice C) may temporarily disqualify the patient but can be treated, unlike breast cancer. In summary, breast cancer poses the highest risk of organ recipient harm compared to the other medical conditions listed.
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Which one of the following signs is indicative of possible shoulder dystocia during delivery?
- A. Failure of internal rotation of the head
- B. Fetal head retracts against the perineum
- C. Gentle traction aids in effecting the delivery
- D. The occiput slowly restitutes towards the left side
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal head retracts against the perineum. This sign indicates possible shoulder dystocia as it suggests the baby's shoulders are impacted and unable to pass through the birth canal. The retraction of the fetal head against the perineum is a classic sign of shoulder dystocia, which requires specific maneuvers to dislodge the shoulders and facilitate delivery.
A: Failure of internal rotation of the head is not specific to shoulder dystocia.
C: Gentle traction should not be applied in cases of shoulder dystocia as it can worsen the situation.
D: The occiput restituting towards the left side is not a sign of shoulder dystocia, as it refers to the rotation of the fetal head during delivery.
Which one of the following clinical features denotes cardiac disease grade III?
- A. Patient is comfortable even at rest
- B. Patient is asymptomatic initially
- C. Marked limitation of physical activity
- D. Absolute limitation of physical activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marked limitation of physical activity. In cardiac disease grading, grade III signifies marked limitation of physical activity. This indicates that the patient experiences symptoms with less than ordinary physical activity, such as shortness of breath or chest pain. This grade reflects significant impairment in daily activities due to cardiac issues.
A: Patient is comfortable even at rest - This describes grade I, where patients are comfortable at rest.
B: Patient is asymptomatic initially - This describes pre-symptomatic stages before any limitations in physical activity.
D: Absolute limitation of physical activity - This is more severe and indicative of grade IV, where any physical activity causes discomfort or symptoms.
The AGACNP is covering an internal medicine service and is paged by staff to see a patient who has just pulled out his ET tube. After the situation has been assessed, it is clear that the patient will go into respiratory failure and likely die if he is not reintubated. The patient is awake and alert and is adamant that he does not want to be reintubated. The AGACNP is concerned that there is not enough time to establish a DNRthe patient needs to be reintubated immediately and already is becoming obtunded. Which ethical principles are in conflict here?
- A. Veracity and beneficence
- B. Beneficence and nonmalfeasance
- C. Autonomy and beneficence
- D. Justice and autonomy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Veracity and beneficence. Veracity refers to truthfulness, and the AGACNP is facing a conflict between being honest with the patient about the need for reintubation (veracity) and providing beneficence by ensuring the patient receives necessary medical care to prevent harm. The patient's autonomy and right to make decisions are not directly in conflict since the patient is conscious, and autonomy is respected by honoring the patient's wishes. Justice is also not in conflict here as it does not pertain to the immediate ethical dilemma of reintubation. Autonomy and beneficence are not in direct conflict as the patient's autonomy is being respected by allowing them to make an informed decision. Nonmalfeasance is not directly applicable in this scenario.
What role does the placenta play in managing fetal waste products?
- A. Filters toxins
- B. Facilitates nutrient absorption
- C. Removes carbon dioxide
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the placenta performs multiple functions in managing fetal waste products. It filters toxins, facilitates nutrient absorption, and removes carbon dioxide. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, allowing for the exchange of nutrients and waste products. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in describing the role of the placenta in managing fetal waste products. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the functions that the placenta serves in this context.
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
- A. Radiographs
- B. CT scan without contrast
- C. MRI
- D. PET scan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Radiographs. Radiographs, specifically skull X-rays, are most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this case. Radiographs can detect fractures, such as skull fractures or facial bone fractures, which are common in cases of physical abuse. These fractures may not always be clinically evident but can be identified on X-rays.
Explanation of other choices:
B: CT scan without contrast - While a CT scan can provide detailed imaging of the head, it may not be necessary in this case as the patient's neurologic examination is within normal limits. Also, radiographs are more cost-effective and can detect fractures effectively.
C: MRI - MRI is not typically used as the first-line imaging modality for suspected head trauma due to its cost and time-consuming nature. Radiographs are more appropriate for initial evaluation.
D: PET scan - PET scans are used to detect metabolic activity in tissues and are not typically indicated for assessing acute traumatic injuries like fractures associated with