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A patient asks the nurse what side effects to expect from a muscle relaxant medication that has been prescribed. Which of the ff. side effects should the nurse relate?
- A. Hypoglycaemia
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drowsiness. Muscle relaxants can cause drowsiness as a common side effect due to their sedative properties. This can impair alertness and coordination, so it's crucial for the patient to be aware of this potential effect. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not typically associated with muscle relaxants. Choice C, hypotension, is more commonly linked to medications like antihypertensives. Choice D, dyspnea, which is difficulty breathing, is not a common side effect of muscle relaxants. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on educating the patient about the potential side effect of drowsiness.
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What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50.
2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland.
3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment.
4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer.
5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer.
6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
- A. Begin with introductions.
- B. Ask about the chief concerns or problems.
- C. Explain that the interview will be over in a few minutes.
- D. Tell the patient “I will be back to administer medications in 1 hour.”
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems.
Rationale:
1. This step follows setting the agenda to focus on patient's main issues.
2. Allows nurse to gather essential information for effective care.
3. Builds rapport and shows patient-centered approach.
Summary of other choices:
A: Introductions are typically done at the beginning of the interview.
C: Prematurely ending the interview may hinder rapport and information gathering.
D: Administering medications is not the immediate priority after setting the agenda.
Which of the following statements would be the nurse's response to a famiiy member asking questions about a client's transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
- A. "I think you should ask the doctor. Would you like me to cail him for you?"
- B. " The blood supply to the brain has decreased causing permanent brain damage."
- C. "It Is a temporary interruption in the blood flow to the brain."
- D. "TIA means a transient ischemic attack."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "It is a temporary interruption in the blood flow to the brain." This response is correct because it accurately describes a transient ischemic attack (TIA) as a temporary condition where blood flow to the brain is briefly interrupted. This explanation is clear, concise, and provides the family member with an accurate understanding of TIA.
Choice A is incorrect because it deflects the question and suggests involving the doctor unnecessarily. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately states that TIA causes permanent brain damage, which is not true. Choice D is incorrect as it simply defines the acronym without providing any meaningful information about what TIA actually is.
The nurse knows which of the following statements about TPN and peripheral parenteral nutrition is true?
- A. TPN is usually indicated for clients needing short term (less than 3 weeks) nutritional support, whereas PPN is for long term maintenance
- B. A client needing more than 3000 calories would receive PPN, whereas TPN is given to those requiring less than 3000 calories
- C. TPN is often given to those with fluid restrictions, whereas PPN is used for those without constraints on their fluid intake
- D. TPN is given to those who need to augment oral feeding, whereas PPN is used for those who are nothing by mouth
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) is indeed given to patients with fluid restrictions, as it provides complete nutrition including fluids, electrolytes, and nutrients. On the other hand, PPN (Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition) is used for patients without fluid restrictions as it provides partial nutrition. A is incorrect because TPN is typically for long-term use and PPN for short-term use. B is incorrect as the caloric requirement does not determine the type of parenteral nutrition. D is incorrect because both TPN and PPN can be used for patients who are unable to eat orally.
Which of the ff is the most severe complication among clients with allergies, regardless of type?
- A. Bronchitis
- B. Anaphylactic shock and angioneurotic
- C. Cardiac arrest edema
- D. Asthma and nasal polyps
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, anaphylactic shock and angioedema, as it is the most severe complication of allergies and can be life-threatening. Anaphylactic shock can lead to airway constriction, severe drop in blood pressure, and organ failure. Angioedema can cause swelling of the face, lips, and throat, leading to difficulty breathing. Bronchitis (A) is a respiratory condition that can occur due to allergies but is not typically life-threatening. Cardiac arrest (C) is a serious complication but not directly related to allergies. Asthma and nasal polyps (D) are common allergic conditions but are not as immediately life-threatening as anaphylactic shock.