Nokea
A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?
- A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
- B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
- D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.
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A patient is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism. What is a key point the nurse should include in the patient education?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach with a full glass of water to ensure proper absorption.
- B. Do not take this medication with calcium supplements.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice.
- D. Take the medication with food to enhance absorption.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, typically 30 minutes to an hour before breakfast, to ensure proper absorption. Taking it with food, calcium supplements, or grapefruit juice can interfere with its absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with calcium supplements can reduce its effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect because grapefruit juice can also interfere with levothyroxine absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with food can decrease its absorption.
A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?
- A. "How would you describe your overall health status?"
- B. "Are you taking any medications for high blood pressure?"
- C. "How has this issue been impacting your relationship?"
- D. "Have you experienced any recent injuries?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.
A 52-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking NSAIDs while on this medication.
- C. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
- D. Women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finasteride, used for BPH, can be harmful to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential absorption through the skin. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between finasteride and NSAIDs mentioned. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride does not typically cause drowsiness or impair mental alertness.
A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
- D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.
Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?
- A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
- B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
- C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
- D. An incision from an open appendectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.