Nursing Process Exam Questions

Nursing Process Exam Questions Related

Review Nursing Process Exam Questions related questions and content

A patient has allergic rhinitis. In planning care for the patient, the nurse understands that if the patient does not remain compliant with the treatment regimen, the patient is at risk for developing which of the following?

  • A. Sinusitis
  • B. Lymphadenopathy
  • C. Anaphylaxis
  • D. Angioedema
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sinusitis. Allergic rhinitis causes inflammation in the nasal passages, leading to congestion and blockage of the sinuses. If the patient does not comply with the treatment regimen, the inflammation can worsen, increasing the risk of developing sinusitis, which is an infection or inflammation of the sinuses. Sinusitis can result in severe pain, pressure, and potentially lead to complications.

Summary of other choices:
B: Lymphadenopathy - Enlargement of lymph nodes, not directly related to non-compliance with treatment for allergic rhinitis.
C: Anaphylaxis - Life-threatening allergic reaction, not a typical consequence of non-compliance with treatment for allergic rhinitis.
D: Angioedema - Swelling of deeper layers of skin, usually associated with allergies but not a common outcome of non-compliance with treatment for allergic rhinitis.

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What is the role of a nurse during scratch test to detect allergies?

  • A. Applying the liquid test antigen
  • B. Determining the type of allergy
  • C. Measuring the length and width of the
  • D. Documenting the findings raised wheal
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Applying the liquid test antigen. During a scratch test to detect allergies, the nurse's role is to apply the liquid test antigen onto the skin to observe the body's reaction. This antigen contains potential allergens that may trigger a response in allergic individuals. By applying this antigen, the nurse can assess if the patient develops a raised wheal or redness at the site, indicating an allergic reaction. This step is crucial in identifying specific allergens causing the patient's symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as determining the type of allergy, measuring the length and width of the reaction, and documenting the findings are all important steps but do not directly relate to the initial action of applying the test antigen during a scratch test.

A patient had a lumbar injury. Which neurological test by the nurse would be affected?

  • A. Rhine’s test
  • B. Pupillary reaction
  • C. Romberg’s test
  • D. Patellar reflex
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Romberg’s test. Romberg’s test assesses a patient's ability to maintain balance with eyes closed, relying on proprioception from the lower limbs. A lumbar injury can affect proprioception, leading to impaired balance. Rhine’s test evaluates auditory function, not affected by a lumbar injury. Pupillary reaction assesses cranial nerve function, unrelated to a lumbar injury. The patellar reflex is a deep tendon reflex, primarily involving the spinal cord segments L2-L4, not directly affected by a lumbar injury.

The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:

  • A. Act as a vasoconstrictor
  • B. Block beta stimulation in the heart
  • C. Act as a vasodilator
  • D. Increase the heart rate
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the beta receptors in the heart, which reduces the heart's workload and oxygen demand, making it an effective treatment for angina. By blocking beta stimulation, propranolol helps to decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial contractility. This ultimately improves oxygen supply to the heart muscle.

Explanation for other choices:
A: Act as a vasoconstrictor - Propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor; it actually can cause vasodilation in some cases.
C: Act as a vasodilator - Propranolol is not primarily a vasodilator; its main action is to block beta stimulation in the heart.
D: Increase the heart rate - Propranolol actually decreases heart rate by blocking beta receptors in the heart.

A patient with abnormal sodium losses is receiving a house diet. To provide 1,600mg sodium daily, the nurse could supplement the patient’s diet with:

  • A. One beef cube and 8oz of tomato juice
  • B. One beef cube and 16oz of tomato juice
  • C. Four beef cubes and 8oz of tomato juice
  • D. One beef cube and 12oz tomato juice
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because 1 beef cube contains about 1,000mg of sodium. To reach 1,600mg, the patient needs an additional 600mg. 12oz of tomato juice contains approximately 600mg of sodium, making it the right choice.

A: Not enough sodium from the beef cube and tomato juice.
B: Too much sodium from the 16oz of tomato juice.
C: Too much sodium from the 4 beef cubes.

What should the client at risk for developing AIDS be advised to do?

  • A. Abstain from anal intercourse
  • B. Have a semen analysis done
  • C. Have an ELISA test for antibodies
  • D. Inform all sexual contacts
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an ELISA test for antibodies is crucial to detect HIV infection early. This test can help diagnose HIV before symptoms appear, allowing for early intervention and treatment. Choice A is important but not specific to HIV prevention. Choice B is irrelevant for HIV prevention. Choice D, while important, should not take precedence over getting tested for HIV.

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