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A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma and the nurse is preparing health education regarding the patients medication regimen. The patient states that she is eager to beat this disease and looks forward to the time that she will no longer require medication. How should the nurse best respond?
- A. You have a great attitude. This will likely shorten the amount of time that you need medications.
- B. In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
- C. Most people are treated until their intraocular pressure goes below 50 mm Hg.
- D. You can likely expect a minimum of 6 months of treatment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
1. Glaucoma is a chronic condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure.
2. Lifelong treatment is usually necessary to manage intraocular pressure and prevent vision loss.
3. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to worsening of the condition.
4. Therefore, the nurse should educate the patient about the need for ongoing medication to manage glaucoma effectively.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Having a positive attitude is beneficial, but it does not shorten the duration of glaucoma treatment.
C: Incorrect. The target intraocular pressure is usually below 21 mm Hg, not 50 mm Hg.
D: Incorrect. Glaucoma treatment is typically long-term, not limited to 6 months.
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A school nurse is caring for a child who appears to be having an allergic response. What should be the initial action of the school nurse?
- A. Assess for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis.
- B. Assess for erythema and urticaria.
- C. Administer an OTC antihistamine.
- D. Administer epinephrine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for the school nurse is to assess for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (Choice A). This is crucial as anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for anaphylaxis symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the face or throat, and a rapid pulse helps the nurse quickly identify the severity of the situation. Administering OTC antihistamines (Choice C) or epinephrine (Choice D) should only be done after confirming the presence of anaphylaxis. Assessing for erythema and urticaria (Choice B) is important but not as immediate as assessing for signs of anaphylaxis in this scenario.
A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection?
- A. Clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin)
- B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- C. Podophyllin (Podofin)
- D. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acyclovir (Zovirax). Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes infections, including genital herpes. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby suppressing symptoms and shortening the course of the infection. Clotrimazole (A) is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, not effective against viral infections like herpes. Metronidazole (B) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not effective against viruses. Podophyllin (C) is a topical treatment for genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), not effective for herpes. Therefore, the correct choice is Acyclovir (D) for treating genital herpes exacerbation.
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
- A. Phimosis
- B. Priapism
- C. Herpes simplex infection
- D. Increasing age E) Lack of circumcision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?
- A. Ask the patient when she last had anything to eat or drink.
- B. Take a culture of the lesions to verify the involved organism.
- C. Ask the patient if she has had unprotected sex since her outbreak.
- D. Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection.
A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor.
B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation.
C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario.
Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?
- A. Impaired nutritional status
- B. Cognitive changes
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Alopeci
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired nutritional status. Radiation therapy to the neck can lead to mucositis, dysphagia, and taste changes, which can impair the patient's ability to eat and maintain adequate nutrition. This can lead to weight loss, weakness, and delayed wound healing. Discussing this potential adverse effect with the patient is crucial for proactive management.
Choice B: Cognitive changes, and Choice C: Diarrhea are less likely to be direct adverse effects of radiation therapy to the neck. Cognitive changes are more commonly associated with brain radiation, while diarrhea is a more common side effect of abdominal radiation.
Choice D: Alopecia is a side effect of chemotherapy, not radiation therapy. Radiation therapy does not typically cause hair loss unless it is in the treatment field. Therefore, discussing alopecia with the patient receiving radiation for a malignant neck tumor is not a priority.