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A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
- A. Sexual stimulation is not needed to obtain an erection.
- B. The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse.
- C. Facial flushing or headache should be reported to the physician immediately.
- D. The drug has the potential to cause permanent visual changes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective.
Explanation of other choices:
B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior.
C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.
D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.
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A nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with active herpes. The teaching plan for this patient should include which of the following?
- A. Babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus.
- B. Recommended treatment is excision of the herpes lesions.
- C. Pain generally does not occur with a herpes outbreak during pregnancy.
- D. Pregnancy may exacerbate the mothers symptoms, but poses no risk to the infant.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because babies can become infected with the herpes virus if delivered vaginally. During childbirth, the virus can be passed to the infant, leading to serious health complications. This information is crucial for the patient to understand in order to make informed decisions about delivery options.
Choice B is incorrect because excision of herpes lesions is not the recommended treatment during pregnancy. Treatment typically involves antiviral medications to manage symptoms and reduce the risk of transmission to the baby.
Choice C is incorrect because herpes outbreaks can indeed be painful during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and a weakened immune system. Pain management strategies should be discussed as part of the teaching plan.
Choice D is incorrect because pregnancy can pose a risk to the infant if the mother has active herpes. It is important to manage the condition appropriately to prevent transmission to the baby.
A medical nurse is providing palliative care to a patient with a diagnosis of end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the primary goal of this nurses care?
- A. To improve the patients and familys quality of life
- B. To support aggressive and innovative treatments for cure
- C. To provide physical support for the patient
- D. To help the patient develop a separate plan with each discipline of the health care team
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To improve the patients and familys quality of life. In palliative care for end-stage COPD, the primary goal is to enhance quality of life by managing symptoms, providing emotional support, and ensuring comfort. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care focuses on comfort rather than aggressive treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care encompasses not only physical but also emotional, social, and spiritual support. Choice D is incorrect as the goal is to provide holistic care rather than separate plans for each discipline. Ultimately, the primary focus of palliative care in this scenario is to improve the overall quality of life for the patient and their family.
A nurse wants to find all the pertinent patientinformation in one record, regardless of the number of times the patient entered the health care system. Which record should the nurse find?
- A. Electronic medical record
- B. Electronic health record
- C. Electronic charting record
- D. Electronic problem record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Electronic health record. An Electronic Health Record (EHR) contains comprehensive health information about an individual that is collected across different health care providers and organizations. This includes medical history, diagnoses, medications, treatment plans, immunization dates, allergies, radiology images, and laboratory test results. The EHR is designed to be accessible by authorized healthcare providers and ensures that all pertinent patient information is available in one centralized record, regardless of the number of times the patient entered the health care system.
A: Electronic medical record (EMR) typically contains information from a single provider or organization.
C: Electronic charting record is more focused on documenting care provided during a specific encounter.
D: Electronic problem record is limited to tracking specific health issues or conditions.
The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response?
- A. Research has shown that eating a healthy diet can provide all the protection you need against breast cancer.
- B. Research has shown that taking the drug tamoxifen can reduce your chance of breast cancer.
- C. Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer.
- D. Research has shown that there is little you can do to reduce your risk of breast cancer if you have a genetic predisposition.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer.
Rationale:
1. Regular exercise helps maintain a healthy weight, which is important in reducing the risk of breast cancer.
2. Physical activity can help regulate hormone levels, such as estrogen, which can affect breast cancer risk.
3. Exercise boosts the immune system and reduces inflammation, both of which play a role in cancer prevention.
Summary:
A: Eating a healthy diet is important, but it alone cannot provide all the protection needed against breast cancer.
B: Tamoxifen may be recommended in some cases, but it is not the primary preventive measure for everyone.
D: While genetic predisposition increases risk, lifestyle choices like exercise can still play a significant role in reducing the risk of breast cancer.
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
- A. Rubella
- B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
- C. Syphilis
- D. HIV
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.