Nokea
A patient has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for HIV infection. The patient asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood, this indicates what?
- A. The patient is immune to HIV.
- B. The patients immune system is intact.
- C. The patient has AIDS-related complications.
- D. The patient has been infected with HIV.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient has been infected with HIV. Antibodies to the AIDS virus in the blood indicate a past or current infection with HIV. This is because the body produces antibodies in response to the presence of the virus.
A: The patient is immune to HIV is incorrect because antibodies indicate exposure, not immunity.
B: The patient's immune system is intact is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not necessarily reflect the overall functionality of the immune system.
C: The patient has AIDS-related complications is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not directly indicate the presence of AIDS-related complications.
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When assessing patient with nutritional needs, which patients will require follow-up from the nurse?(Select all that apply.)
- A. A patient with infection taking tetracycline with milk
- B. A patient with irritable bowel syndrome increasing fiber
- C. A patient with diverticulitis following a high-fiber diet daily
- D. A patient with an enteral feeding and 500 mL of gastric residual
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A patient with infection taking tetracycline with milk. This is because tetracycline binds with the calcium in milk, reducing its absorption and effectiveness. The nurse should follow up to ensure the patient is not compromising the treatment.
Choices B and C are incorrect because increasing fiber for irritable bowel syndrome and following a high-fiber diet for diverticulitis are appropriate interventions that do not require immediate follow-up.
Choice D is incorrect because it is a routine part of managing enteral feedings to monitor gastric residuals, and does not necessarily require immediate follow-up unless there are specific concerns.
A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinsons disease several months ago recently began treatment with levodopa-carbidopa. The patient and his family are excited that he has experienced significant symptom relief. The nurse should be aware of what implication of the patients medication regimen?
- A. The patient is in a honeymoon period when adverse effects of levodopa-carbidopa are not yet evident.
- B. Benefits of levodopa-carbidopa do not peak until 6 to 9 months after the initiation of treatment.
- C. The patients temporary improvement in status is likely unrelated to levodopa-carbidopa.
- D. Benefits of levodopa-carbidopa often diminish after 1 or 2 years of treatment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The patient is in a honeymoon period when adverse effects of levodopa-carbidopa are not yet evident. This is because the initial response to levodopa-carbidopa in Parkinson's disease can be very positive, leading to significant symptom relief. However, over time, as the disease progresses and the body adjusts to the medication, adverse effects such as dyskinesias may become more prominent.
Choice B is incorrect because the benefits of levodopa-carbidopa can be seen relatively soon after initiation of treatment and do not necessarily take 6 to 9 months to peak. Choice C is incorrect as the temporary improvement is likely related to the medication, given the significant symptom relief experienced. Choice D is incorrect because while benefits may diminish over time, it is not necessarily after 1 or 2 years of treatment, and some patients may continue to benefit from the medication long-term.
A nurse is caring for patients with dysphagia. Which patient has neurogenic dysphagia?
- A. A patient with benign peptic stricture
- B. A patient with muscular dystrophy
- C. A patient with myasthenia gravis
- D. A patient with stroke
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because neurogenic dysphagia is caused by neurological conditions affecting swallowing function, such as a stroke. In a stroke, damage to the brain can impair the coordination of swallowing muscles, leading to dysphagia.
Choice A is incorrect because benign peptic stricture is a narrowing of the esophagus due to chronic acid reflux, not a neurological issue.
Choice B is incorrect because muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects muscle strength and does not directly impact the neurological control of swallowing.
Choice C is incorrect because myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects neuromuscular transmission but is not typically associated with neurogenic dysphagia.
A patient is receiving opioids for pain. Which bowel assessment is a priority?
- A. Clostridium difficile
- B. Constipation
- C. Hemorrhoids
- D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Constipation. When a patient is receiving opioids, constipation is a common side effect due to decreased gut motility. It is a priority assessment because untreated constipation can lead to serious complications such as bowel obstruction. Monitoring for constipation allows for early intervention with stool softeners or laxatives to prevent complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Clostridium difficile - While important to consider in patients on antibiotics, it is not directly related to opioid use.
C: Hemorrhoids - Although opioids can contribute to constipation which may exacerbate hemorrhoids, it is not the priority assessment.
D: Diarrhea - Opioids typically cause constipation, so diarrhea is less likely to be a priority concern in this scenario.
A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma and the nurse is preparing health education regarding the patients medication regimen. The patient states that she is eager to beat this disease and looks forward to the time that she will no longer require medication. How should the nurse best respond?
- A. You have a great attitude. This will likely shorten the amount of time that you need medications.
- B. In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
- C. Most people are treated until their intraocular pressure goes below 50 mm Hg.
- D. You can likely expect a minimum of 6 months of treatment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
1. Glaucoma is a chronic condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure.
2. Lifelong treatment is usually necessary to manage intraocular pressure and prevent vision loss.
3. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to worsening of the condition.
4. Therefore, the nurse should educate the patient about the need for ongoing medication to manage glaucoma effectively.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Having a positive attitude is beneficial, but it does not shorten the duration of glaucoma treatment.
C: Incorrect. The target intraocular pressure is usually below 21 mm Hg, not 50 mm Hg.
D: Incorrect. Glaucoma treatment is typically long-term, not limited to 6 months.