A patient has come to the office for a blood draw. The patient starts to sweat and is very anxious. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?
- A. Do not perform the procedure. Notify the physician of the reason why.
- B. Perform the procedure but pay close attention for signs of potential syncope.
- C. Allow the patient to reschedule for a time when he isn't as anxious.
- D. Have the physician draw the blood.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a patient is sweating and anxious, it is important to assess for signs of potential syncope (fainting) while proceeding with the blood draw. If the patient does not exhibit signs of fainting, the phlebotomy procedure can be performed safely. Postponing the procedure may not address the patient's anxiety and inconvenience them. Having the physician draw the blood is not necessary if the phlebotomist can handle the situation effectively.
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The rehabilitation nurse wishes to make the following entry into a client's plan of care: 'Client will reestablish a pattern of daily bowel movements without straining within two months.' The nurse would write this statement under which section of the plan of care?
- A. Nursing diagnosis/problem list
- B. Nursing orders
- C. Short-term goals
- D. Long-term goals
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Long-term goals.' Long-term goals are designed to describe changes in client behavior expected over a time frame greater than one week. In this case, the goal of reestablishing a pattern of daily bowel movements without straining within two months falls under a long-term goal. Long-term goals are aimed at restoring normal functioning in a problem area and are beneficial for healthcare workers caring for the client across different settings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nursing diagnosis/problem list, nursing orders, and short-term goals do not encompass the desired timeframe or level of expected change in this scenario.
A patient with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What potential problem associated with dysphagia has the greatest influence on the plan of care?
- A. Anorexia
- B. Aspiration
- C. Self-care deficit
- D. Inadequate intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a person experiences dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), the greatest concern is aspiration. Aspiration occurs when food or fluids enter the trachea and lungs instead of going down the esophagus. This can lead to serious complications such as choking, airway obstruction, and aspiration pneumonia. Anorexia (Choice A) refers to a loss of appetite, which is not the primary concern with dysphagia. Self-care deficit (Choice C) and inadequate intake (Choice D) are important considerations but do not have as direct an impact on the immediate safety and health risks associated with aspiration in dysphagia.
A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding?
- A. Run the urine on the hand-held glucometer.
- B. Have another MA perform a repeat dipstick test.
- C. Run a Clinitest.
- D. Run an Acetest.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To confirm glucosuria, the most appropriate method is to run a Clinitest. Clinitest tablets are specifically designed to detect glucose in urine samples. This test is particularly useful when the urine is discolored, making it challenging to accurately assess the color change.\n
Choice A, using a hand-held glucometer, is not the standard method for confirming glucose in urine; these devices are primarily used for blood glucose monitoring.\n
Choice B, having another Medical Assistant perform a repeat dipstick test, may not provide a more definitive confirmation as dipstick tests can sometimes yield false positives or be less accurate compared to other methods like the Clinitest.\n
Choice D, running an Acetest, is used to detect ketones in the urine, not glucose. Ketones are typically associated with conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, which is different from glucosuria.
When caring for a patient with latex allergy, the healthcare provider creates a latex-safe environment by doing which of the following?
- A. Carefully cleaning the wall-mounted blood pressure device before using it.
- B. Donning latex gloves outside the room to limit powder dispersal.
- C. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol.
- D. Placing the patient in a semi-private room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Creating a latex-safe environment for a patient with latex allergy is crucial to prevent allergic reactions. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol is essential as it ensures that medications and supplies provided to the patient are free of latex components. Cleaning a wall-mounted blood pressure device may not be sufficient as the device itself may contain latex parts that can trigger an allergic reaction. Donning latex gloves, even outside the room, is not recommended as powder dispersal can cause issues; only non-latex gloves should be used in a latex-safe environment. Placing the patient in a semi-private room does not directly address the need to eliminate latex exposure from medical supplies and equipment, which is better achieved through a latex-free pharmacy protocol.
When are manual hematocrits done?
- A. to monitor anemia
- B. by using a microhematocrit tube.
- C. to measure the percentage of plasma to cells.
- D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Manual hematocrits are performed to monitor anemia, which involves measuring the percentage of red blood cells in the blood. The process involves collecting blood in a microhematocrit tube, then centrifuging it to separate the plasma from the cells. By measuring the ratio of plasma to cells, healthcare providers can assess the patient's hematocrit level. Therefore, all the provided options are correct as they collectively describe the purpose and procedure of manual hematocrits.