A patient has come to the outpatient radiology department for diagnostic testing. Which of the following diagnostic procedures will allow the care team to evaluate and remove polyps?
- A. Colonoscopy
- B. Barium enema
- C. ERCP
- D. Upper gastrointestinal fibroscopy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During colonoscopy, tissue biopsies can be obtained as needed, and polyps can be removed and evaluated. This is not possible during a barium enema, ERCP, or gastroscopy.
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A clinic patient has described recent dark-colored stools; the nurse recognizes the need for fecal occult blood testing (FOBT). What aspect of the patient's current health status would contraindicate FOBT?
- A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
- B. Peptic ulcers
- C. Hemorrhoids
- D. Recurrent nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: FOBT should not be performed when there is hemorrhoidal bleeding. GERD, peptic ulcers and nausea and vomiting do not contraindicate the use of FOBT as a diagnostic tool.
Probably the most widely used in-office or at-home occult blood test is the Hemoccult II. The patient has come to the clinic because he thinks there is blood in his stool. When you reviewed his medications, you noted he is on antihypertensive drugs and NSAIDs for early arthritic pain. You are sending the patient home with the supplies necessary to perform 2 hemoccult tests on his stool and mail the samples back to the clinic. What instruction would you give this patient?
- A. Take all your medications as usual.
- B. Take all your medications except the antihypertensive medications.
- C. Don't eat highly acidic foods 72 hours before you start the test.
- D. Avoid vitamin C for 72 hours before you start the test.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Red meats, aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, turnips, and horseradish should be avoided for 72 hours prior to the study, because they may cause a false-positive result. Also, ingestion of vitamin C from supplements or foods can cause a false-negative result. Acidic foods do not need to be avoided.
A patient has been scheduled for a urea breath test in one month's time. What nursing diagnosis most likely prompted this diagnostic test?
- A. Impaired Dentition Related to Gingivitis
- B. Risk For Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Peptic Ulcers
- C. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Enzyme Deficiency
- D. Diarrhea Related to Clostridium Difficile Infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Urea breath tests detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori, the bacteria that can live in the mucosal lining of the stomach and cause peptic ulcer disease. This test does not address fluid volume, nutritional status, or dentition.
An advanced practice nurse is assessing the size and density of a patient's abdominal organs. If the results of palpation are unclear to the nurse, what assessment technique should be implemented?
- A. Percussion
- B. Auscultation
- C. Inspection
- D. Rectal examination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Percussion is used to assess the size and density of the abdominal organs and to detect the presence of air-filled, fluid-filled, or solid masses. Percussion is used either independently or concurrently with palpation because it can validate palpation findings.
A patient asks the nursing assistant for a bedpan. When the patient is finished, the nursing assistant notifies the nurse that the patient has bright red streaking of blood in the stool. What is this most likely a result of?
- A. Diet high in red meat
- B. Upper GI bleed
- C. Hemorrhoids
- D. Use of iron supplements
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lower rectal or anal bleeding is suspected if there is streaking of blood on the surface of the stool. Hemorrhoids are often a cause of anal bleeding since they occur in the rectum. Blood from an upper GI bleed would be dark rather than frank. Iron supplements make the stool dark, but not bloody and red meat consumption would not cause frank blood.
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