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A patient has food poisoning. Laboratory analysis revealed a culture of anaerobic gram-positive spore-forming bacteria. What is the most likely kind of the isolated causative agent?
- A. C. perfringens
- B. Proteus vulgaris
- C. P. mirabilis
- D. Vibrio parahemolyticus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: C. perfringens. This is because Clostridium perfringens is a gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacterium commonly associated with food poisoning. It produces toxins that cause gastrointestinal symptoms. Proteus vulgaris (B) and P. mirabilis (C) are gram-negative bacteria not typically associated with food poisoning. Vibrio parahemolyticus (D) is a gram-negative bacterium causing seafood-related gastroenteritis, not spore-forming or anaerobic.
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The causative agent of plague is:
- A. Bordetella pertussis
- B. Yersinia pestis
- C. Rickettsia prowazekii
- D. Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis is the causative agent of plague, a serious infectious disease transmitted through fleas. It causes bubonic, pneumonic, and septicemic plague. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, Rickettsia prowazekii causes epidemic typhus, and Treponema pallidum causes syphilis. Y. pestis is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with plague, making the other options incorrect.
Allergy to penicillin is an example of:
- A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
- B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
- C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
- D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct:
1. Penicillin allergy involves IgE antibodies binding to penicillin.
2. This triggers mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine.
3. Histamine causes allergic symptoms like rash, swelling.
4. This immune response characterizes Type I hypersensitivity reactions.
Summary of other choices:
B: Type II reactions involve antibody-mediated cell destruction, not seen in penicillin allergy.
C: Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition, not typical in penicillin allergy.
D: Type IV reactions are delayed hypersensitivity reactions, not immediate like penicillin allergy.
A patient with severe pneumonia had a sputum culture revealing Gram-negative rods that are non-lactose fermenters. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- D. Enterobacter cloacae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is because Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common Gram-negative rod that is a non-lactose fermenter and a common cause of severe pneumonia, especially in immunocompromised individuals. It is also known for its resistance to many antibiotics, making it difficult to treat.
Summary of other choices:
B: Escherichia coli is a lactose fermenter and is not commonly associated with severe pneumonia.
C: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a lactose fermenter and is more commonly associated with pneumonia in alcoholics or debilitated patients.
D: Enterobacter cloacae is a lactose fermenter and is not a common cause of severe pneumonia.
Which scientist performed the first successful vaccination against smallpox?
- A. Pasteur
- B. Jenner
- C. Semmelweis
- D. Koch
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jenner. Edward Jenner is credited with performing the first successful vaccination against smallpox in 1796. He used cowpox virus to inoculate individuals, leading to immunity against smallpox. Jenner's experiment laid the foundation for modern vaccination. Pasteur (A) is known for developing the germ theory of disease. Semmelweis (C) advocated for handwashing to prevent infections. Koch (D) identified the causative agents of several diseases but did not develop the smallpox vaccine.
A journalist's body temperature has sharply increased in the morning three weeks after his mission in India, it was accompanied with shivering and bad headache. A few hours later the temperature decreased. The attacks began to repeat in a day. He was diagnosed with tropical malaria. What stage of development of Plasmodium is infective for anopheles-female?
- A. Gametocytes
- B. B.Shizontes
- C. C.Merozoites
- D. E.Sporozoites
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporozoites. Sporozoites are the infective stage of Plasmodium for the female Anopheles mosquito. Here's the rationale: After being transmitted to a human host through a mosquito bite, the sporozoites travel to the liver where they mature and reproduce asexually as merozoites (not the infective stage for mosquitoes). The merozoites then infect red blood cells, leading to symptoms like fever, headache, and shivering. During the blood stage, some merozoites develop into male and female gametocytes, which are not infective to mosquitoes. When a mosquito bites an infected person, it ingests gametocytes, which then develop into male and female gametes and fuse to form ookinetes. Ookinetes develop into oocysts in the mosquito's gut, releasing sporozoites that migrate to the salivary glands, ready to infect a new human host when the mosquito bites