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A patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is scheduled for brachytherapy next week. The patient and his wife are unsure of having the procedure because their daughter is 3 months pregnant. What is the most appropriate teaching the nurse should provide to this family?
- A. The patient should not be in contact with the baby after delivery.
- B. The patients treatment poses no risk to his daughter or her infant.
- C. The patients brachytherapy may be contraindicated for safety reasons.
- D. The patient should avoid close contact with his daughter for 2 months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because brachytherapy does not pose a risk to the patient's daughter or her unborn child. Brachytherapy involves placing radioactive sources inside or near the tumor, which does not make the patient radioactive. The radiation does not travel far and does not pose a risk to others. Therefore, the daughter and her infant are safe from any radiation exposure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because there is no need for the patient to avoid contact with the baby after delivery, the brachytherapy is not contraindicated for safety reasons, and there is no requirement for the patient to avoid close contact with his daughter for 2 months.
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A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patients diarrhea?
- A. Zithromax
- B. Sandostatin
- C. Levaquin
- D. Biaxin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sandostatin. This drug is a somatostatin analog that can help manage HIV-related chronic severe diarrhea by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. Sandostatin works by inhibiting the release of various hormones and neurotransmitters in the gut, which can help control diarrhea in HIV patients.
Rationale:
A: Zithromax is an antibiotic that is not typically used to manage chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients.
C: Levaquin is also an antibiotic and not indicated for managing diarrhea in HIV patients.
D: Biaxin is another antibiotic and not the appropriate choice for managing chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients.
In summary, Sandostatin is the correct choice as it specifically targets the underlying cause of diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions, whereas the other options are antibiotics that are not indicated for this purpose.
A junior nursing student is having an observation day in the operating room. Early in the day, the student tells the OR nurse that her eyes are swelling and she is having trouble breathing. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. Cytotoxic reaction due to contact with the powder in the gloves
- B. Immune complex reaction due to contact with anesthetic gases
- C. Anaphylaxis due to a latex allergy
- D. Delayed reaction due to exposure to cleaning products
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis due to a latex allergy. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be triggered by exposure to latex products such as gloves in the operating room. The symptoms of swelling of the eyes and difficulty breathing are classic signs of anaphylaxis.
Rationale:
1. Swelling of the eyes and difficulty breathing are hallmark symptoms of anaphylaxis.
2. Latex is a common allergen that can cause severe allergic reactions like anaphylaxis.
3. The student's symptoms are occurring shortly after entering the operating room, suggesting an acute allergic reaction.
4. The other choices (A, B, D) do not align with the symptoms presented and are less likely in this scenario.
A nurse is caring for patients with dysphagia. Which patient has neurogenic dysphagia?
- A. A patient with benign peptic stricture
- B. A patient with muscular dystrophy
- C. A patient with myasthenia gravis
- D. A patient with stroke
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because neurogenic dysphagia is caused by neurological conditions affecting swallowing function, such as a stroke. In a stroke, damage to the brain can impair the coordination of swallowing muscles, leading to dysphagia.
Choice A is incorrect because benign peptic stricture is a narrowing of the esophagus due to chronic acid reflux, not a neurological issue.
Choice B is incorrect because muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects muscle strength and does not directly impact the neurological control of swallowing.
Choice C is incorrect because myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects neuromuscular transmission but is not typically associated with neurogenic dysphagia.
When administering a patients eye drops, the nurse recognizes the need to prevent absorption by the nasolacrimal duct. How can the nurse best achieve this goal?
- A. Ensure that the patient is well hydrated at all times.
- B. Encourage self-administration of eye drops.
- C. Occlude the puncta after applying the medication.
- D. Position the patient supine before administering eye drops.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Occlude the puncta after applying the medication. By occluding the puncta after applying the eye drops, the nurse can prevent the medication from draining into the nasolacrimal duct and being absorbed systemically. This is important to ensure that the medication remains in the eye and exerts its intended local effect.
Choice A (Ensure that the patient is well hydrated at all times) is incorrect because hydration status does not directly prevent absorption through the nasolacrimal duct.
Choice B (Encourage self-administration of eye drops) is incorrect as the method of administration does not prevent absorption through the nasolacrimal duct.
Choice D (Position the patient supine before administering eye drops) is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of preventing absorption through the nasolacrimal duct.
A 6-month-old infant is brought to the ED by his parents for inconsolable crying and pulling at his right ear. When assessing this infant, the advanced practice nurse is aware that the tympanic membrane should be what color in a healthy ear?
- A. Yellowish-white
- B. Pink
- C. Gray
- D. Bluish-white
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink. In a healthy ear, the tympanic membrane should appear pink due to the rich blood supply. This color indicates good vascularization and normal functioning of the ear. Yellowish-white (choice A), gray (choice C), and bluish-white (choice D) are incorrect because they do not reflect the normal color of a healthy tympanic membrane. Yellowish-white may indicate fluid behind the eardrum, gray may suggest infection or inflammation, and bluish-white could indicate poor blood flow or trauma. Therefore, the pink color of the tympanic membrane is the most appropriate and indicative of a healthy ear in this case.