Nokea
A patient has presented to the emergency department with an injury to the wrist. The patient is diagnosed with a third-degree strain. Why would the physician order an x-ray of the wrist?
- A. Nerve damage is associated with third-degree strains.
- B. Compartment syndrome is associated with third-degree strains.
- C. Avulsion fractures are associated with third-degree strains.
- D. Greenstick fractures are associated with third-degree strains.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An x-ray should be obtained to rule out bone injury, because an avulsion fracture (in which a bone fragment is pulled away from the bone by a tendon) may be associated with a third-degree strain. Nerve damage, compartment syndrome, and greenstick fractures are not associated with third-degree strains.
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Elevate the arm above the shoulder 3 to 4 times daily.
- A. Avoid moving the elbow, wrist, and fingers until bone remodeling is complete.
- B. Engage in active range of motion using the affected arm.
- C. Use the arm for light activities within the range of motion.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient with a clavicle fracture may use a sling to support the arm and relieve the pain. The patient may be permitted to use the arm for light activities within the range of comfort. The patient should not elevate the arm above the shoulder level until the ends of the bones have united, but the nurse should encourage the patient to exercise the elbow, wrist, and fingers.
A 25-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident and injures his arm. The physician diagnoses the man with an intra-articular fracture and splints the injury. The nurse implements the teaching plan developed for this patient. What sequela of intra-articular fractures should the nurse describe regarding this patient?
- A. Post-traumatic arthritis
- B. Fat embolism syndrome (FES)
- C. Osteomyelitis
- D. Compartment syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intra-articular fractures often lead to post-traumatic arthritis. Research does not indicate a correlation between intra-articular fractures and FES, osteomyelitis, or compartment syndrome.
An emergency department nurse is assessing a 17-year-old soccer player who presented with a knee injury. The patients description of the injury indicates that his knee was struck medially while his foot was on the ground. The nurse knows that the patient likely has experienced what injury?
- A. Lateral collateral ligament injury
- B. Medial collateral ligament injury
- C. Anterior cruciate ligament injury
- D. Posterior cruciate ligament injury
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When the knee is struck medially, damage may occur to the lateral collateral ligament. If the knee is struck laterally, damage may occur to the medial collateral ligament. The ACL and PCL are not typically injured in this way.
A nurses assessment of a patients knee reveals edema, tenderness, muscle spasms, and ecchymosis. The patient states that 2 days ago he ran 10 miles and now it really hurts to stand up. The nurse should plan care based on the belief that the patient has experienced what?
- A. A first-degree strain
- B. A second-degree strain
- C. A first-degree sprain
- D. A second-degree sprain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A second-degree strain involves tearing of muscle fibers and is manifested by notable loss of load-bearing strength with accompanying edema, tenderness, muscle spasm, and ecchymosis. A first-degree strain reflects tearing of a few muscle fibers and is accompanied by minor edema, tenderness, and mild muscle spasm, without noticeable loss of function. However, this patient states a loss of function. A sprain normally involves twisting, which is inconsistent with the patients overuse injury.
A nurse is performing a shift assessment on an elderly patient who is recovering after surgery for a hip fracture. The nurse notes that the patient is complaining of chest pain, has an increased heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. The nurse further notes that the patient is febrile and hypoxic, coughing, and producing large amounts of thick, white sputum. The nurse recognizes that this is a medical emergency and calls for assistance, recognizing that this patient is likely demonstrating symptoms of what complication?
- A. Avascular necrosis of bone
- B. Compartment syndrome
- C. Fat embolism syndrome
- D. Complex regional pain syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fat embolism syndrome occurs most frequently in young adults and elderly patients who experience fractures of the proximal femur (i.e., hip fracture). Presenting features of fat embolism syndrome include hypoxia, tachypnea, tachycardia, and pyrexia. The respiratory distress response includes tachypnea, dyspnea, wheezes, precordial chest pain, cough, large amounts of thick, white sputum, and tachycardia. Avascular necrosis (AVN) occurs when the bone loses its blood supply and dies. This does not cause coughing. Complex regional pain syndrome does not have cardiopulmonary involvement.