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A patient has questioned the nurses administration of IV normal saline, asking whether sterile water would be a
more appropriate choice than saltwater. Under what circumstances would the nurse administer electrolyte-free water
intravenously?
- A. Never, because it rapidly enters red blood cells, causing them to rupture.
- B. When the patient is severely dehydrated resulting in neurologic signs and symptoms
- C. When the patient is in excess of calcium and/or magnesium ions
- D. When a patients fluid volume deficit is due to acute or chronic renal failure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because electrolyte-free water, such as sterile water, can rapidly enter red blood cells due to osmotic differences, causing them to swell and potentially rupture, leading to hemolysis. This can result in severe harm to the patient.
Choice B is incorrect because electrolyte-free water is not indicated for severely dehydrated patients with neurologic signs and symptoms. They require electrolytes to correct their imbalances.
Choice C is incorrect as administering electrolyte-free water would not address excess calcium and/or magnesium ions in the body. Specific treatments for hypercalcemia or hypermagnesemia are needed.
Choice D is incorrect because patients with fluid deficits due to renal failure require electrolyte-balanced solutions to manage their condition effectively. Electrolyte-free water would not address the electrolyte imbalances associated with renal failure.
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. A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his
home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to
light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of
urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
- A. The man urinated prior to his arrival to the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept
in place.
- B. The man likely has a traumatic brain injury, lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and needs vasopressin.
- C. The man is experiencing symptoms of heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide that results in
decreased urine output. - D. The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that
results in diminished urine output.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The man's elevated heart rate, anxiety, and low urine output indicate a sympathetic reaction. This reaction stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased urine output. The sympathetic response triggers the release of renin, which activates angiotensin II and aldosterone, causing vasoconstriction and water reabsorption in the kidneys, ultimately reducing urine output. Choice A is incorrect because low urine output is not solely due to urinating before arrival. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of traumatic brain injury or ADH deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as atrial natriuretic peptide in heart failure typically increases urine output.
You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results?
- A. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation
- B. Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation
- D. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To interpret the given ABG results:
1. pH <7.35 indicates acidosis.
2. PaCO2 <35 indicates respiratory alkalosis.
3. HCO3 <22 indicates metabolic acidosis.
Therefore, the ABG results show metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3) with compensatory respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2). This means the body is trying to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by decreasing PaCO2 through hyperventilation. Option D is correct. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the ABG results and the principles of acid-base balance.
A nurse is caring for a client who has just experienced a 90-second tonic-clonic seizure. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 6.88, PaO2 50 mm Hg, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. . Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula
- B. Apply a paper bag over the clients nose and mouth.
- C. Administer 50 mL of sodium bicarbonate intravenously.
- D. Administer 50 mL of 20% glucose and 20 units of regular insulin.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula. The client is experiencing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and oxygenation during the seizure. Providing oxygen will help improve oxygenation and correct the respiratory acidosis. This is the priority to address the immediate physiological need.
Choice B is incorrect as applying a paper bag can lead to rebreathing of carbon dioxide, worsening the respiratory acidosis. Choice C is incorrect as sodium bicarbonate is not indicated in this situation and can potentially worsen the acid-base imbalance. Choice D is incorrect as administering glucose and insulin is not relevant to correcting the respiratory acidosis.
A nurse develops a plan of care for a client who has a history of hypocalcemia. What interventions should the nurse include in this clients care plan? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Use a draw sheet to reposition the client in bed.
- B. . Strain all urine output and assess for urinary stones.
- C. Provide nonslip footwear for the client to use when out of bed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Straining all urine output and assessing for urinary stones is important for a client with hypocalcemia as they are at risk for developing kidney stones due to increased calcium excretion. By straining urine, the nurse can monitor for the presence of stones.
A, using a draw sheet to reposition the client, is not directly related to hypocalcemia. C, providing nonslip footwear, is important for fall prevention but not specific to hypocalcemia. D, since it is not provided, cannot be evaluated.
You are the surgical nurse caring for a 65-year-old female patient who is postoperative day 1 following a
thyroidectomy. During your shift assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. She tells you that
she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance
should you first suspect?
- A. Hypophosphatemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypocalcemia. Following a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. Symptoms such as tingling in lips and fingers, muscle spasms, and increased muscle tone are classic signs of hypocalcemia. The initial concern should be hypocalcemia due to its potential to cause serious complications such as tetany and laryngospasm. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the symptoms described. Hypophosphatemia may present with weakness and respiratory failure, hypermagnesemia with hypotension and respiratory depression, and hyperkalemia with muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias.