Nokea
A patient has undergone diagnostic testing and has been diagnosed with otosclerosis? What ear structure is primarily affected by this diagnosis?
- A. Malleus
- B. Stapes
- C. Incus
- D. Tympanic membrane
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stapes. Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, causing the stapes bone to become fixed in place. This results in hearing loss due to the inability of the stapes to transmit sound vibrations to the inner ear. The malleus (choice A), incus (choice C), and tympanic membrane (choice D) are not primarily affected by otosclerosis. The malleus and incus are located in the middle ear but are not typically affected by otosclerosis. The tympanic membrane is part of the outer ear and is not directly involved in otosclerosis.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what?
- A. Urinary tract infection
- B. Chronic pain
- C. Permanent vascular damage
- D. Future erectile dysfunction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Permanent vascular damage. Priapism is a prolonged erection that can lead to ischemia and damage to the penile tissue due to impaired blood flow, potentially resulting in permanent vascular damage. Urinary tract infection (A) is unrelated to priapism. Chronic pain (B) may occur but is not the primary concern. Future erectile dysfunction (D) can result from priapism but is not as immediate or severe as permanent vascular damage. Therefore, C is the most critical consequence to address in priapism.
The nurse is discharging a patient home after mastoid surgery. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
- A. Try to induce a sneeze every 4 hours to equalize pressure.
- B. Be sure to exercise to reduce fatigue.
- C. Avoid sleeping in a side-lying position.
- D. Dont blow your nose for 2 to 3 weeks.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Don't blow your nose for 2 to 3 weeks." After mastoid surgery, blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and disrupt healing. Here's the rationale:
1. Blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and lead to complications.
2. Avoiding blowing the nose helps prevent infection and reduces the risk of damaging the surgical site.
3. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote proper healing and reduce the chances of postoperative complications.
In summary, the other choices are incorrect because inducing a sneeze, exercising, and avoiding side-lying position do not directly relate to the specific care needs after mastoid surgery.
A nurse is addressing the incidence and prevalence of HIV infection among older adults. What principle should guide the nurses choice of educational interventions?
- A. Many older adults do not see themselves as being at risk for HIV infection.
- B. Many older adults are not aware of the difference between HIV and AIDS.
- C. Older adults tend to have more sex partners than younger adults.
- D. Older adults have the highest incidence of intravenous drug use.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it addresses the key issue of perception of risk among older adults. Many older adults may not perceive themselves as being at risk for HIV infection due to misconceptions or lack of awareness. This principle guides the nurse to tailor educational interventions to address this specific barrier. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the perception of risk among older adults. Older adults' awareness of HIV/AIDS, number of sex partners, or incidence of intravenous drug use are not the primary factors influencing their perception of HIV risk.
Anti-infective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant patient with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the patient is at risk of developing
- A. hypertension.
- B. postpartum infection.
- C. bacterial endocarditis.
- D. upper respiratory infections.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacterial endocarditis. Mitral valve stenosis increases the risk of bacterial endocarditis due to turbulent blood flow and potential damage to the heart valve. Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended before certain procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis in patients with underlying cardiac conditions.
Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect as mitral valve stenosis does not directly increase the risk of developing hypertension. Choice B, postpartum infection, is not directly related to the risk associated with mitral valve stenosis. Choice D, upper respiratory infections, is not a specific risk associated with mitral valve stenosis in pregnant patients.
When planning discharge teaching with a patient who has undergone a total mastectomy with axillary dissection, the nurse knows to instruct the patient that she should report what sign or symptom to the physician immediately?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Temperature greater than 98.5F
- C. Sudden cessation of output from the drainage device
- D. Gradual decline in output from the drain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sudden cessation of output from the drainage device. This is crucial because it can indicate a potential complication like a blocked drain or infection, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent further issues. Other choices like fatigue (A) are common after surgery but not urgent. Temperature elevation (B) may indicate infection but is not as critical as sudden cessation of drainage. Gradual decline in output (D) is expected as the drainage decreases over time, so it doesn't require immediate reporting.