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A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?
- A. Elevated serum calcium
- B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- C. Elevated serum vitamin D
- D. Low urine calcium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.
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In which of the following conditions would a healthcare provider not administer erythromycin?
- A. Campylobacteriosis infection
- B. Legionnaires disease
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Multiple Sclerosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disease affecting the central nervous system, involving the brain and spinal cord. Since MS is not caused by bacteria, administering erythromycin would not be appropriate. Campylobacteriosis infection, Legionnaires disease, and pneumonia are bacterial infections that can be treated with erythromycin, making them incorrect choices for conditions where erythromycin would not be administered.
During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Multiple sclerosis
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia nervosa
- D. Systemic sclerosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.
A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
- C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
- D. Generalized edema.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.
A patient underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours ago and presents to the emergency department with increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?
- A. Bowel perforation
- B. Viral gastroenteritis
- C. Colon cancer
- D. Diverticulitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bowel perforation. Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy, with signs such as progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia indicating advancing peritonitis. Although colonoscopic perforation is rare (0.03% to 0.7% incidence), it can lead to high mortality and morbidity rates. Viral gastroenteritis (Choice B) typically presents with symptoms like diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, but it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. Colon cancer (Choice C) and diverticulitis (Choice D) are important conditions but are less likely to present acutely after colonoscopy compared to bowel perforation.
The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?
- A. Narrowed QRS complex
- B. Shortened "PR"? interval
- C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
- D. Prominent "U"? waves
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.