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A patient is admitted to the oncology unit with a small-cell lung carcinoma. During the admission, the patient is noted to have a significant decrease in urine output accompanied by shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes. The nurse is aware that this clinical presentation is consistent with
- A. adrenal crisis.
- B. diabetes insipidus.
- C. myxedema coma.
- D. syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of decreased urine output, shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes are indicative of fluid overload due to SIADH. SIADH causes excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. This results in edema, decreased urine output, and neurological symptoms.
A: Adrenal crisis presents with hypotension, shock, and electrolyte abnormalities, not consistent with the patient's symptoms.
B: Diabetes insipidus would present with excessive urine output and thirst, opposite of the patient's symptoms.
C: Myxedema coma results from severe hypothyroidism and presents with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, not consistent with the patient's symptoms.
In summary, the patient's clinical presentation aligns
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The most significant clinical finding of acute adrenal crisis associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance is
- A. fluid volume excess.
- B. hyperglycemia.
- C. hyperkalemia
- D. hypernatremia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (C: hyperkalemia):
1. Adrenal crisis leads to adrenal insufficiency, causing decreased cortisol levels.
2. Cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating potassium levels.
3. With decreased cortisol, potassium levels can rise, leading to hyperkalemia.
4. Hyperkalemia can result in life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
Summary:
A: Fluid volume excess is not typical in adrenal crisis.
B: Hyperglycemia can be present but is not the most significant finding.
D: Hypernatremia is not a typical feature of adrenal crisis.
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
- A. 70 to 120 mg/dL.
- B. a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL compared with admitting values.
- C. a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values.
- D. less than 200 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm.
Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patient’s temperature is elevated. The nurse should
- A. assess peritoneal dialysate return.
- B. check the patient’s blood sugar.
- C. evaluate the patient’s neurological status.
- D. inform the provider of probable visceral perforation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: inform the provider of probable visceral perforation. This is the most urgent action as sudden abdominal pain, chills, and elevated temperature in a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis could indicate a serious complication like visceral perforation, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Assessing peritoneal dialysate return (A) may provide some information but does not address the urgent need to address a potential visceral perforation. Checking the patient's blood sugar (B) and evaluating the patient's neurological status (C) are not priorities in this situation and do not address the potential life-threatening complication of visceral perforation.
A patient with long-standing type 1 diabetes presents to the emergency department with a loss of consciousness and seizure activity. The patient has a history of renal insufficiency, gastroparesis, and peripheral diabetic neuropathy. Emergency personnel reported a blood glucose of 32 mg/dL on scene. When providing discharge teaching for this patient and family, the nurse instructs on the need to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Administer glucagon 1 mg intramuscularly any time the blood glucose is less than 70 mg/dL.
- B. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate orally for severe episodes of hypoglycemia.
- C. Discontinue the insulin pump by removing the infusion set catheter.
- D. Increase home blood glucose monitoring and report patterns of hypoglycemia to the provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate orally for severe episodes of hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing severe hypoglycemia (blood glucose of 32 mg/dL) leading to loss of consciousness and seizure activity. Administering 15 grams of carbohydrate orally is crucial to rapidly raise the blood glucose levels and address the hypoglycemia. This immediate intervention can help reverse the symptoms and prevent further complications.
The incorrect choices:
A: Administering glucagon intramuscularly is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the patient cannot take anything by mouth. In this case, oral intake is preferred for faster absorption.
C: Discontinuing the insulin pump is not necessary in this situation since the primary concern is treating the acute hypoglycemia. Removing the infusion set can lead to hyperglycemia if not managed properly.
D: Increasing home blood glucose monitoring and reporting patterns of hyp
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter in place. In caring for this patient, the nurse should
- A. apply a sterile gauze dressing to maintain sterility.
- B. replace the transparent dressing every 10 days to prevent manipulation.
- C. assess the catheter site for redness and/or swelling.
- D. use the catheter for drawing blood samples to reduce patient discomfort.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the catheter site for redness and/or swelling is essential in monitoring for signs of infection or complications. Redness and swelling can indicate infection, which requires prompt intervention.
A: Applying a sterile gauze dressing is not necessary for a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter unless specified by the healthcare provider.
B: Transparent dressings are typically left in place for several days unless there is a specific reason to change them more frequently.
D: Using the catheter for drawing blood samples is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection and may interfere with the dialysis process.