Nokea
A patient is being discharged from the med-surgical unit. The patient has a history of gastritis. The nurse questions the patient on their usual routine at home. Which of these statements would alert the nurse that additional teaching is required?
- A. I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.
- B. I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods.
- C. I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals.
- D. I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.' Aspirin is classified as an NSAID and can exacerbate existing stomach problems, such as gastritis. Therefore, patients with gastritis should avoid aspirin just like any other NSAID. Choice B, 'I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods,' is a good practice for a patient with gastritis. Choice C, 'I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals,' indicates understanding of the correct timing for antacid use. Choice D, 'I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often,' shows a suitable limitation of coffee intake, which is beneficial for patients with gastritis.
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A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
- A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
- B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
- C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer
- D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.
When caring for an asthmatic patient with an early-phase reaction, which of the following is indicative of an early-phase reaction?
- A. Rapid bronchospasms
- B. Inflammatory epithelial lesions
- C. Increased secretions
- D. Increased mucosal edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rapid bronchospasms are a symptom of an early-phase reaction in an asthmatic patient. During the early phase, bronchospasms occur due to immediate hypersensitivity reactions. Inflammatory epithelial lesions, increased secretions, and increased mucosal edema are typically seen in late-phase reactions as part of the inflammatory response that occurs later. Therefore, rapid bronchospasms are most indicative of an early-phase reaction.
A patient diagnosed with alopecia would be described as having:
- A. body lice
- B. lack of ear lobes
- C. Indigestion
- D. hair loss
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'hair loss.' Alopecia is a medical term that specifically refers to the condition of hair loss, usually in patches or all over the body. Choice A, 'body lice,' refers to a parasitic infestation and is not related to alopecia. Choice B, 'lack of ear lobes,' is completely unrelated to the term alopecia, which is solely about hair loss. Choice C, 'Indigestion,' has no connection to alopecia as it pertains to digestive issues, not hair loss. Therefore, the correct description for a patient diagnosed with alopecia is 'hair loss.'
Which of the following complaints is characteristic of a patient with Bell's Palsy?
- A. Paralysis of the right or left arm
- B. Malfunction of a certain cranial nerve
- C. A sub-condition of Cerebral Palsy
- D. A side effect of a stroke
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bell's Palsy is characterized by the dysfunction of the Facial nerve, which is cranial nerve VII. This dysfunction leads to facial muscle weakness or paralysis, not affecting the arms. Choice A is incorrect as Bell's Palsy specifically involves facial muscles, not the arms. Choice C is incorrect as it incorrectly associates Bell's Palsy with a different condition, Cerebral Palsy. Choice D is incorrect as Bell's Palsy is not a side effect of a stroke but rather a distinct condition with its own etiology.
A patient presents with vesicles covering the upper torso. Which of the following situations could cause this condition?
- A. Knife fight
- B. Auto accident
- C. Sunburn
- D. Fungal infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vesicles are fluid-filled blisters. In the context of the upper torso, the presentation of vesicles suggests a second-degree sunburn. Sunburn can cause blistering, leading to the formation of vesicles. Choice A, 'Knife fight,' does not align with the presentation of vesicles on the upper torso due to trauma. Choice B, 'Auto accident,' is more likely to cause abrasions or bruises rather than vesicles. Choice D, 'Fungal infection,' typically presents with other symptoms such as redness, itching, or scaling, but not vesicles on the upper torso.