Nokea
A patient is hospitalized due to nonadherence to an antitubercular drug treatment. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to do?
- A. Observe the patient taking the medications.
- B. Administer the medications parenterally.
- C. Instruct the family on the medication regimen.
- D. Count the number of tablets in the bottle daily.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the most crucial action for the nurse to take is to observe the patient taking the medications. This ensures that the patient is actually consuming the prescribed antitubercular drugs, addressing the issue of nonadherence directly. Administering the medications parenterally (intravenously or intramuscularly) is not necessary unless there are specific medical reasons requiring this route of administration. Instructing the family on the medication regimen is important for support but may not directly address the patient's nonadherence. Counting the number of tablets in the bottle daily is not as effective as directly observing the patient taking the medications to ensure compliance.
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A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the proper use of this medication?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
- C. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
- D. Apply the medication once a week.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Consistency in timing helps regulate the hormone levels in the body, ensuring the medication's optimal benefit. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid sun exposure with this medication. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting the healthcare provider may not be safe. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone acetate is typically taken orally and not applied topically once a week.
What causes the appearance of a barrel chest in clients with emphysema?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Bacterial infections in the lungs
- C. Air trapping in the alveoli
- D. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Air trapping in the alveoli. A barrel chest in emphysema results from the hyperinflation of the lungs due to air trapping in the alveoli. This leads to increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema is swelling caused by fluid retention in tissues, not associated with a barrel chest in emphysema. Bacterial infections in the lungs can lead to conditions like pneumonia but do not directly cause a barrel chest. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm could affect breathing mechanics but is not specifically linked to the development of a barrel chest in emphysema.
A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?
- A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
- B. Bacterial invasion
- C. Impaired arterial blood supply
- D. Metaplastic cellular changes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.
A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer pain relief medication.
- B. Obtain a stat head CT scan.
- C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
- D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.
What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?
- A. Anemia
- B. Recurrent infections
- C. Hypersensitivity
- D. Autoantibody production
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.