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A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What specific contraindication should the nurse discuss with the patient?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and Cialis both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure when used together. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, use of antihypertensive medications, and a history of peptic ulcer disease are not specific contraindications for tadalafil use.
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Right-sided heart failure is characterized by:
- A. Immunosuppression
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Coughing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure is characterized by peripheral edema, which results from the buildup of fluid in the body. This fluid accumulates in the extremities due to the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Immunosuppression is not a typical feature of right-sided heart failure. Pulmonary edema is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs. Coughing is a symptom that can be present in various conditions but is not a defining characteristic of right-sided heart failure.
When administering azoles in the home setting, the home health nurse should prioritize educational interventions that address what nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy
- B. Risk for acute confusion related to antifungal therapy
- C. Risk for infection related to antifungal therapy
- D. Risk for falls related to antifungal therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy. When administering azoles, the priority is to educate patients and caregivers about potential side effects that could lead to injury, such as hepatotoxicity or allergic reactions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because acute confusion, infection, and falls are not typically associated with azole therapy.
A 60-year-old male client with a long history of back pain has had little success with a variety of analgesic regimens that his family physician has prescribed. He has recently been diagnosed with a chronic pain disorder. Which teaching points about chronic pain would his physician most likely emphasize to the client?
- A. Chronic pain is often difficult to treat and requires a multimodal approach.
- B. Chronic pain indicates that an underlying injury has not healed properly.
- C. Chronic pain can be managed with a single long-term medication.
- D. Chronic pain is typically less severe than acute pain but lasts longer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic pain is often complex and challenging to treat, necessitating a multimodal approach that may include medication, physical therapy, and behavioral therapy. Choice B is incorrect because chronic pain does not always indicate that an underlying injury has not healed properly; it can persist even after the initial injury has healed. Choice C is incorrect as chronic pain management usually involves a combination of treatments rather than relying solely on a single long-term medication. Choice D is incorrect because chronic pain is not necessarily less severe than acute pain; it can vary in intensity and duration depending on the individual and underlying condition.
A child with a serious fungal infection is receiving amphotericin B parenterally. Which of the following minerals will the patient most likely be required to receive?
- A. Chloride
- B. Magnesium
- C. Glucose
- D. Sodium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient is receiving amphotericin B, which is known to cause renal toxicity, they are most likely to require magnesium supplementation. Amphotericin B can lead to renal loss of magnesium, potassium, and calcium. Magnesium is an essential mineral that plays a vital role in various physiological functions, and its levels need to be monitored and supplemented when necessary. Chloride, glucose, and sodium are not typically supplemented in the context of amphotericin B therapy for a serious fungal infection.
A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?
- A. Avanafil (Stendra)
- B. Tadalafil (Cialis)
- C. Vardenafil (Levitra)
- D. Alprostadil (Caverject)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.