Nokea
A patient is receiving a 3% saline continuous IV infusion for hyponatremia. Which assessment data will require the most rapid response by the nurse?
- A. The patient's radial pulse is 105 beats/minute.
- B. There is sediment and blood in the patient's urine.
- C. The blood pressure increases from 120/80 to 142/94.
- D. There are crackles audible throughout both lung fields.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Crackles throughout both lungs suggest that the patient may be experiencing pulmonary edema, a life-threatening adverse effect of hypertonic solutions. The increased pulse rate and blood pressure and the presence of sediment and blood in the urine should also be reported, but they are not as immediately dangerous as the presence of fluid in the alveoli, which compromises gas exchange and can lead to respiratory failure.
You may also like to solve these questions
The home health nurse cares for an alert and oriented older adult patient with a history of dehydration. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient related to fluid intake?
- A. Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry.
- B. More fluids are needed if you feel thirsty.
- C. Drink more fluids in the late evening hours.
- D. If you feel lethargic or confused, you need more to drink.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. An alert, older patient can self-assess for signs of dehydration like dry mouth. This instruction is appropriate as it encourages the patient to respond to early signs of dehydration. Choice B is incorrect because the thirst mechanism decreases with age and feeling thirsty may not accurately indicate the need for fluids. Choice C is incorrect as many older patients prefer to limit evening fluid intake to enhance sleep quality. Choice D is incorrect because an older adult who is lethargic or confused may not be able to accurately assess their need for fluids.
When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient's food tray?
- A. Grape juice
- B. Milk carton
- C. Mixed green salad
- D. Fried chicken breast
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.
A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient complains of "just blowing up" and has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- A. Skin turgor
- B. Heart sounds
- C. Mental status
- D. Capillary refill
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Increases in extracellular fluid (ECF) can lead to swelling of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by increases in ECF, these are signs that do not have as immediate impact on patient outcomes as cerebral edema.
After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. Patient with a serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping
- B. Patient with a serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water
- C. Patient with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
- D. Patient with a serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.
The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe? (Select all that apply).
- A. Tops of the ears
- B. Bridge of the nose
- C. Around the nostrils
- D. Over the cheeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Around the nostrils.' Constant pressure from the tubing may create skin damage to the areas of skin and bony prominences the nasal cannula will be resting on, including around the nostrils. Choice A, 'Tops of the ears,' is incorrect as the cannula does not rest on the ears. Choice B, 'Bridge of the nose,' is incorrect because the cannula typically rests under the nose. Choice D, 'Over the cheeks,' is also incorrect as the cannula does not typically rest on the cheeks.