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A patient is taking alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Take the medication in the morning with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
- C. Take the medication before bed to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken in the morning with a full glass of water and the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with food as it can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication before bed increases the risk of esophageal irritation and reduces absorption due to lying down. Choice D is also incorrect because taking alendronate with milk or other calcium-rich foods can decrease its absorption.
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A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Decreased prostate size
- C. Increased prostate size
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased prostate size. Finasteride is a medication used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. By decreasing the size of the prostate, symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency are improved. Choice A is incorrect as the medication aims to decrease, not increase, urinary symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because the goal of finasteride is to reduce, not increase, the prostate size. Choice D is also incorrect as finasteride is not indicated for lowering blood pressure.
A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:
- A. Immunodeficiency
- B. Autoimmunity
- C. Anaphylaxis
- D. Tissue-specific hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe, immediate allergic reaction mediated by IgE. In this scenario, the symptoms of itching, pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties following a bee sting are indicative of anaphylaxis. Choice A, Immunodeficiency, refers to a weakened immune system's inability to protect the body from infections and diseases, which is not the case here. Choice B, Autoimmunity, involves the immune system attacking healthy cells and tissues by mistake, which is not the mechanism at play in anaphylaxis. Choice D, Tissue-specific hypersensitivity, does not accurately describe the immediate, systemic reaction seen in anaphylaxis.
When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse emphasize about the potential interactions with other medications?
- A. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics.
- B. Oral contraceptives are less effective when taken with food.
- C. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
- D. Oral contraceptives have no interactions with other medications.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics, so patients should be informed about the potential need for additional contraception. Choice B is incorrect because taking oral contraceptives with food does not affect their effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives can interact with other medications, especially certain antibiotics, affecting their efficacy.
A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
- A. IgG
- B. IgA
- C. IgM
- D. IgD
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.
The nurse is planning care for a client with damage to the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. What should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
- A. Assistance with ambulation
- B. Regular hearing tests
- C. Monitoring for nausea
- D. Vision assessments
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Damage to the vestibular area affects balance and may cause nausea. Therefore, the nurse should include assistance with ambulation in the care plan to help the client maintain stability while walking. Regular hearing tests (choice B) are not directly related to damage in the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. While nausea (choice C) may occur due to vestibular damage, monitoring for it alone is not as essential as providing assistance with ambulation. Vision assessments (choice D) are important for assessing visual function but are not the priority when dealing with vestibular issues.