Nokea
A patient is unable to control his bowels ff. a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which intervention by the nurse can help reduce episodes of bowel incontinence?
- A. Ask the patient frequently if he has to have a bowel movement
- B. Place incontinence pads on the patient’s bed and chair
- C. Toilet the patient according to his pre-illness schedule, whether or not he feels the urge
- D. Take care not to embarrass the patient when incontinent episode occur
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Toilet the patient according to his pre-illness schedule, whether or not he feels the urge. This intervention helps establish a routine for bowel movements, which can aid in reducing episodes of bowel incontinence. By following the patient's pre-illness schedule, the nurse can help regulate bowel movements and prevent accidents.
A: Asking the patient frequently if he has to have a bowel movement may not address the underlying issue of bowel incontinence.
B: Placing incontinence pads on the patient's bed and chair is a reactive measure and does not address the root cause of the issue.
D: Taking care not to embarrass the patient when incontinent episodes occur is important for emotional support but does not directly address reducing episodes of bowel incontinence.
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After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
- A. abnormal vital signs. Have the patient transported to the radiology department for a scheduled x-ray, and
- B. review vital signs upon return.
- C. Ask the NAP to record the patient’s vital signs before administering medications.
- D. Omit the vital signs because the patient is presently in no distress.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Safety First - The nurse's priority is patient safety. Without vital signs, medication administration can be unsafe.
Step 2: Accountability - The nurse must ensure accurate and timely vital signs recording before making clinical decisions.
Step 3: Delegation - Asking the NAP to record vital signs aligns with their role and helps maintain a reliable record.
Step 4: Proactive Approach - By having the NAP record vital signs, the nurse can make informed decisions based on accurate data.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - Proceeding with medications without vital signs can risk patient safety.
B: Incorrect - Waiting to review vital signs later can delay necessary interventions.
D: Incorrect - Omitting vital signs is negligent and compromises patient care.
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
- A. abnormal vital signs. Have the patient transported to the radiology department for a scheduled x-ray, and
- B. review vital signs upon return.
- C. Ask the NAP to record the patient’s vital signs before administering medications.
- D. Omit the vital signs because the patient is presently in no distress.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C:
1. Safety First: Recording vital signs is crucial for patient safety. Asking the NAP to record vital signs ensures the patient's condition is monitored before administering medications.
2. Accountability: Nurses are responsible for ensuring accurate documentation of vital signs. Asking the NAP to record them maintains accountability within the healthcare team.
3. Communication: By requesting the NAP to record vital signs, the nurse fosters effective communication and collaboration in patient care.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Administering medications without reviewing vital signs could lead to adverse effects if there are abnormalities.
B: Reviewing vital signs upon return delays immediate action and could jeopardize patient safety.
D: Omitting vital signs neglects the essential monitoring required for patient care and could result in missed opportunities for early intervention.
A febrile patient’s fluid output is in excess of normal because of diaphoresis. The nurse should plan fluid replacement based on the knowledge that insensible losses in an afebrile person are normally not greater than:
- A. 300ml/24hr
- B. 900ml/24hr
- C. 600ml/24hr
- D. 1200ml/24hr
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (600ml/24hr) because insensible fluid losses in an afebrile person are typically around 600ml per 24 hours. Insensible losses include water lost through the skin as sweat and through the lungs during respiration. These losses are not easily quantifiable but are estimated to be around 600ml/day in normal circumstances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are either too low (A and B) or too high (D) compared to the normal range of insensible fluid losses. Selecting C as the correct answer is based on the understanding of physiological principles related to fluid balance and normal body functions.
Compartment syndrome is a potential complication of elbow fractures that decreases circulation to local neuromuscular structures. The nurse monitors circulation on a casted elbow because irreversible damage can develop if compartment syndrome lasts for more than:
- A. 48 hours
- B. 2 hours
- C. 12 hours
- D. 24 hours
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 24 hours. Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure within a closed muscle compartment increases, leading to decreased circulation and potential tissue damage. Monitoring is crucial as irreversible damage can occur if left untreated. The 6 Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure) are key indicators. Waiting for 48 hours (choice A) or 12 hours (choice C) is too long and can result in severe consequences. 2 hours (choice B) is too short a timeframe to assess for irreversible damage development, making 24 hours (choice D) the most appropriate timeframe for monitoring and intervention.
A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?
- A. Follicular carcinoma
- B. Anaplastic carcinoma
- C. Medullary carcinoma
- D. Papillary carcinoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Papillary carcinoma. This is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for about 80% of cases. It is typically slow-growing and has a good prognosis. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Follicular carcinoma (choice A) is less common than papillary carcinoma and arises from the follicular cells as well. Anaplastic carcinoma (choice B) is a highly aggressive and rare form of thyroid cancer. Medullary carcinoma (choice C) originates from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland and is not as common as papillary carcinoma. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is D, papillary carcinoma, due to its high prevalence and relatively favorable prognosis.