Nokea
A patient is vigilant in her efforts to take good care of herself but is frustrated by her recent history of upper respiratory infections and influenza. What aspect of the patients lifestyle may have a negative effect on immune response?
- A. The patient works out at the gym twice daily.
- B. The patient does not eat red meats.
- C. The patient takes over-the-counter dietary supplements.
- D. The patient sleeps approximately 6 hours each night.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rigorous exercise or competitive exercise usually considered a positive lifestyle factor can be a physiologic stressor and cause negative effects on immune response. The patients habits around diet and sleep do not present obvious threats to immune function.
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A nurse is planning a patients care and is relating it to normal immune response. During what stage of the immune response should the nurse know that antibodies or cytotoxic T cells combine and destroy the invading microbes?
- A. Recognition stage
- B. Proliferation stage
- C. Response stage
- D. Effector stage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the effector stage, either the antibody of the humoral response or the cytotoxic (killer) T cell of the cellular response reaches and couples with the antigen on the surface of the foreign invader. The coupling initiates a series of events that in most instances results in total destruction of the invading microbes or the complete neutralization of the toxin. This does not take place during the three preceding stages.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had a severe antigen/antibody reaction. The nurse knows that the portion of the antigen that is involved in binding with the antibody is called what?
- A. Antibody lock
- B. Antigenic sequence
- C. Antigenic determinant
- D. Antibody channel
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The portion of the antigen involved in binding with the antibody is referred to as the antigenic determinant. This portion is not known as an antibody lock, antigenic sequence, or antibody channel.
During a mumps outbreak at a local school, a patient, who is a school teacher, is exposed. She has previously been immunized for mumps. What type of immunity does she possess?
- A. Acquired immunity
- B. Natural immunity
- C. Phagocytic immunity
- D. Humoral immunity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acquired immunity usually develops as a result of prior exposure to an antigen, often through immunization. When the body is attacked by bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens, it has three means of defense. The first line of defense, the phagocytic immune response, involves the WBCs that have the ability to ingest foreign particles. A second protective response is the humoral immune response, which begins when the B lymphocytes transform themselves into plasma cells that manufacture antibodies. The natural immune response system is rapid, nonspecific immunity present at birth.
A patient with a history of dermatitis takes corticosteroids on a regular basis. The nurse should assess the patient for which of the following complications of therapy?
- A. Immunosuppression
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Anemia
- D. Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corticosteroids such as prednisone can cause immunosuppression. Corticosteroids do not typically cause agranulocytosis, anemia, or low platelet counts.
A patient requires ongoing treatment and infection-control precautions because of an inherited deficit in immune function. The nurse should recognize that this patient most likely has what type of immune disorder?
- A. A primary immune deficiency
- B. A gammopathy
- C. An autoimmune disorder
- D. A rheumatic disorder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary immune deficiency results from improper development of immune cells or tissues. These disorders are usually congenital or inherited. Autoimmune disorders are less likely to have a genetic component, though some have a genetic component. Overproduction of immunoglobulins is the hallmark of gammopathies. Rheumatic disorders do not normally involve impaired immune function.