Nokea
A patient presents with a painless, gradually enlarging mass in the left neck, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals thyroid follicular cells. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Thyroglossal duct cyst
- B. Lymphadenopathy
- C. Thyroid adenoma
- D. Thyroid carcinoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation described is most consistent with a thyroid adenoma. Thyroid adenomas are benign neoplasms of the thyroid gland and can present as painless, gradually enlarging masses in the neck. Fine-needle aspiration cytology revealing thyroid follicular cells further supports the diagnosis of a thyroid adenoma. Thyroglossal duct cysts typically present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing, while lymphadenopathy presents as enlarged lymph nodes and may be associated with infection or malignancy. Thyroid carcinoma may also present as a neck mass but is more likely to be associated with other features such as vocal cord paralysis, hoarseness, or enlarged cervical lymph nodes.
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Which of the following is the central theme of Sr. Calista Roys theory
- A. Self care deficit
- B. Nursing as caring
- C. Adaptation
- D. Transcultural
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The central theme of Sr. Callista Roy's theory is adaptation. Roy's Adaptation Model focuses on the individual's ability to adapt to internal and external stimuli in order to maintain health and well-being. The theory emphasizes the interconnectedness of the individual and their environment, highlighting the dynamic process of adaptation in response to stimuli. By focusing on adaptation, Roy's theory guides nursing practice in promoting holistic care that supports individuals in adapting to changes and achieving optimal health outcomes.
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Vestibular function tests demonstrate unilateral weakness. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Vestibular neuritis
- B. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
- C. Ménière's disease
- D. Acoustic neuroma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours, along with nausea, vomiting, nystagmus, and unilateral weakness on vestibular function tests, is most consistent with vestibular neuritis. Vestibular neuritis is an inflammatory disorder of the vestibular nerve, typically viral in origin, leading to acute onset of vertigo. Patients often experience severe vertigo, imbalance, nausea, and vomiting, along with characteristic nystagmus. Unilateral weakness on vestibular function testing supports the diagnosis of vestibular neuritis, as it indicates dysfunction of one vestibular organ. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) typically presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by changes in head position without associated unilateral vestibular weakness. Ménière's disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo associated with fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and aural fullness, and
Which of the following is NOT a step of record keeping?
- A. Structuring
- B. Securing
- C. Storing
- D. Easy Disposa l
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Record keeping involves several key steps such as structuring, securing, and storing information. However, easy disposal is not a step in record keeping. In fact, it is important to carefully consider the disposal of records in a secure and responsible manner to protect sensitive information and comply with relevant regulations. Proper disposal methods should be followed to ensure that records are not accessible to unauthorized individuals and that any sensitive information is properly destroyed to prevent misuse or breaches of privacy. Therefore, easy disposal is not a recommended practice in effective record keeping.
A patient presents with a Colles' fracture. What is the characteristic deformity associated with this type of fracture?
- A. Dorsal displacement of the distal fragment
- B. Ventral displacement of the distal fragment
- C. Lateral displacement of the distal fragment
- D. Medial displacement of the distal fragment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Colles' fracture is a type of distal radius fracture characterized by a break of the radius bone in the forearm close to the wrist. In a Colles' fracture, the distal fragment of the fractured radius bone gets displaced dorsally, meaning it shifts upwards towards the back of the hand, creating a characteristic "dinner fork" deformity when viewed from the side. This dorsal displacement results in a visible bump on the back of the wrist and a noticeable deformity when compared to the uninjured side.
Which of the following terms refers to the process by which antibodies coat the surface of pathogens, marking them for destruction by phagocytes or complement proteins?
- A. Opsonization
- B. Neutralization
- C. Agglutination
- D. Precipitation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Opsonization refers to the process by which antibodies bind to the surface of pathogens, marking them for destruction by phagocytes or complement proteins. This coating of antibodies enhances the ability of the immune system to recognize and eliminate the pathogens effectively. Phagocytes (such as macrophages and neutrophils) are better able to engulf and digest pathogens that have been opsonized, as the antibodies attached to the pathogen surface signal to the phagocytes that they are foreign invaders. This process is crucial in the body's immune response to infections and helps in clearing pathogens from the system.