Pathophysiology Practice Questions

Pathophysiology Practice Questions Related

Review Pathophysiology Practice Questions related questions and content

A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is significantly higher in the right arm than in the left arm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

  • A. Acute myocardial infarction
  • B. Pulmonary embolism
  • C. Aortic dissection
  • D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe chest pain that can radiate to the back. The discrepancy in blood pressure between the arms (higher in the right arm) is known as a 'pulse deficit' and is a classic finding in aortic dissection. This condition involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, leading to the abnormal flow of blood within the aortic wall. Acute myocardial infarction (choice A) presents with chest pain but typically does not cause discrepancies in blood pressure between arms. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) usually presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing but does not cause unequal blood pressures in the arms. Pericarditis (choice D) can cause chest pain exacerbated by breathing or lying down, but it does not typically lead to differences in blood pressure between arms.

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In gout, a man has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:

  • A. asymptomatic.
  • B. acute flare.
  • C. the intercritical period.
  • D. chronic gout.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The man's presentation of large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows is indicative of tophi formation, which is characteristic of chronic gout. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that can develop over time in untreated or poorly managed gout. During the chronic phase of gout, tophi can form in joints, soft tissues, and organs. Asymptomatic refers to a phase where there are no symptoms present. Acute flare is characterized by sudden and severe joint pain and inflammation. The intercritical period is the time between gout attacks when the patient is symptom-free.

Which goal is a priority for a client with a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of delirium and the nursing diagnosis Acute confusion related to recent surgery secondary to traumatic hip fracture?

  • A. The client will complete activities of daily living.
  • B. The client will maintain safety.
  • C. The client will remain oriented.
  • D. The client will understand communication.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The client will maintain safety.' For a client with delirium, especially in the context of acute confusion post-surgery, safety is the top priority. Delirium can lead to disorientation, impaired decision-making, and increased risk of falls or accidents. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent harm is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are important but not the priority in this scenario. Completing activities of daily living, remaining oriented, and understanding communication are relevant goals but come after ensuring the client's safety in the presence of delirium and acute confusion.

Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for a client with dementia?

  • A. The client will return to an established schedule for activities of daily living.
  • B. The client will learn new coping mechanisms to handle anxiety.
  • C. The client will seek out resources in the community for support.
  • D. The client will follow an established schedule for activities of daily living.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. For clients with dementia, following an established schedule for activities of daily living is appropriate as it helps maintain routine and structure, which can be beneficial for their condition. Choice A has been rephrased to align better with the context of dementia care. Choice A is incorrect as expecting a return to a previous level of self-functioning may not be realistic for clients with dementia. Choice B is not the most appropriate outcome criteria as handling anxiety, while important, may not be the primary focus when working with clients with dementia. Choice C, seeking out resources in the community for support, is also important but may not be as directly related to the day-to-day care and management of activities for a client with dementia.

Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:

  • A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
  • B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
  • C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
  • D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer's disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.

Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?

  • A. Primary aldosteronism
  • B. Essential hypertension
  • C. White coat hypertension
  • D. Prehypertension
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is a common cause of secondary hypertension. In primary aldosteronism, there is an overproduction of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion, ultimately resulting in high blood pressure. Essential hypertension (Choice B) is the most common type of hypertension, but it is considered primary hypertension, not secondary. White coat hypertension (Choice C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety but not in daily life. Prehypertension (Choice D) is a condition where blood pressure levels are elevated but not high enough to be classified as hypertension.

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