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A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Cushing's syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are classic signs of diabetes mellitus. In this case, the presence of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and glycosuria (glucose in the urine) further support the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Insulin deficiency or resistance in diabetes leads to impaired glucose utilization and excessive glucose in the bloodstream, causing the classic symptoms observed in the patient. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and Cushing's syndrome do not typically present with the hallmark symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
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In response to chronic hypoxia, which physiological adaptation occurs in the body to increase oxygen delivery to tissues?
- A. Decreased erythropoietin production
- B. Decreased red blood cell production
- C. Increased cardiac output
- D. Decreased ventilation rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In response to chronic hypoxia, the body adapts to increase oxygen delivery to tissues by increasing cardiac output. This is achieved by increasing the heart rate and stroke volume, allowing more oxygenated blood to be pumped to the tissues. The increased cardiac output helps compensate for the lower oxygen levels in the blood, ensuring that tissues receive an adequate supply of oxygen despite the hypoxic conditions. This physiological adaptation is essential for maintaining tissue oxygenation and supporting overall cellular function in the presence of chronic hypoxia.
A pregnant woman presents with a history of recurrent pregnancy losses in the second trimester. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and uterine contractions are absent. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Threatened abortion
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Incompetent cervix
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that is unable to support the weight of the growing fetus, leading to painless cervical dilation and second-trimester pregnancy loss. In this condition, the cervix may dilate prematurely without contractions, resulting in a painless cervical dilation. The history of recurrent second-trimester losses, along with cervical dilation and absence of uterine contractions in the presenting pregnant woman, are characteristic of incompetent cervix. Prompt recognition and management with cerclage placement can help prevent further pregnancy losses in women with incompetent cervix.
When a patient develops a temperature of 39.8 degree centigrade after an abdominal surgery with an ongoing blood transfusion, the PACU nurse should notify the surgeon as this may indicate ______.
- A. abdominal tissue injury
- B. on going potential infection
- C. post-anesthesia drug reaction
- D. allergic reaction from blood transfusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A temperature of 39.8 degrees Celsius (103.6 degrees Fahrenheit) in a patient following abdominal surgery and ongoing blood transfusion may indicate an ongoing potential infection. During surgery, the body is exposed to various microorganisms, and the stress of surgery can weaken the immune system, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Blood transfusions also carry a risk of introducing infections if not properly screened. Therefore, in this situation, an elevated temperature may be a sign that an infection is developing, and prompt notification of the surgeon is important for further evaluation and management.
A patient presents with a pruritic, eczematous rash with erythematous papules, vesicles, and excoriations on the flexural surfaces of the elbows and knees. The patient reports a personal history of asthma and hay fever. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Atopic dermatitis
- B. Contact dermatitis
- C. Seborrheic dermatitis
- D. Nummular eczema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atopic dermatitis is a chronic, pruritic inflammatory skin condition that typically presents in individuals with a personal or family history of asthma and allergic rhinitis (hay fever). The characteristic presentation includes erythematous papules, vesicles, and excoriations on the flexural surfaces of the elbows and knees. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen in patients with atopy, which refers to a genetic predisposition to develop allergic diseases like asthma, hay fever, and eczema. Therefore, given the patient's personal history of asthma and hay fever along with the described rash distribution and appearance, atopic dermatitis is the most likely diagnosis.
Her diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder constantly does repetitive cleaning. The nurse knows that this behavior is probably MOST basically, an attempt to _______.
- A. Decrease the anxiety to a tolerable level
- B. Focus attention on non-threatening tasks
- C. Control others
- D. Decrease time available for interaction with people
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The behavior of repetitive cleaning in someone diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder is likely an attempt to decrease the anxiety to a tolerable level. People with OCD often engage in compulsive behaviors, such as cleaning, in an effort to alleviate the distress and anxiety caused by obsessive thoughts. This repetitive action provides a sense of control and temporary relief from the anxiety associated with their obsessive thoughts. By engaging in cleaning rituals, individuals with OCD can try to reduce their anxious feelings and create a sense of order and cleanliness in their environment.