Nokea
A patient presents with severe headache, blurred vision, and fatigue. Laboratory tests reveal elevated white blood cell count, thrombocytosis, and presence of JAK2 V617F mutation. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
- A. Polycythemia vera
- B. Essential thrombocythemia
- C. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
- D. Myelofibrosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation of severe headache, blurred vision, and fatigue, along with the laboratory findings of elevated white blood cell count, thrombocytosis, and JAK2 V617F mutation, are characteristic of essential thrombocythemia. This is a myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the clonal proliferation of megakaryocytes, leading to an increased platelet count. The JAK2 V617F mutation is commonly found in essential thrombocythemia and other myeloproliferative disorders. The symptoms of essential thrombocythemia can be related to the increased blood viscosity and risk of thrombosis due to the elevated platelet count. Polycythemia vera would present with elevated red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit, along with other features such as pruritus after a hot bath. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML
You may also like to solve these questions
The young mother wanted to know about the motor development APPROPRIATE in a preschooler. Which of the following statements NOT true?
- A. "He can tie shoe lace"
- B. "He can alternate feet when climbing"
- C. "He has not developed good postures"
- D. "He can hop two or more times"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The statement that the preschooler can alternate feet when climbing is not true. Typically, preschoolers at this age group are still developing their coordination and may not have mastered the skill of alternating feet while climbing. It is more common for them to use one foot after the other while climbing. This skill usually requires more advanced motor development and coordination, which may come later in the preschool years.
Which of the following is caused by the markedly distended uterus and intermittent uterine contractions within 2 to 3 days after birth?
- A. Retained placenta
- B. Uterine atony
- C. Afterpains
- D. Boggy uterus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine atony is caused by the markedly distended uterus and intermittent uterine contractions within 2 to 3 days after birth. It is characterized by the inability of the uterus to contract after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding postpartum. This condition is a significant risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. Treatment may involve massage of the uterus, administration of uterotonics, and in severe cases, surgical interventions such as a hysterectomy. Retained placenta refers to incomplete expulsion of the placenta after delivery. Afterpains are the discomfort felt by some women as their uterus contracts and returns to its normal size after childbirth. A boggy uterus is another term for a uterus that feels soft, lax, or lack firm tone, which can be a sign of uterine atony.
A patient with a history of stroke is at risk for impaired skin integrity due to immobility. Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing pressure ulcers in this patient?
- A. Turning and repositioning the patient every 2 hours
- B. Massaging bony prominences regularly
- C. Applying heating pads to areas of erythema
- D. Using a pressure-reducing mattress
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Turning and repositioning the patient every 2 hours is the most effective nursing intervention in preventing pressure ulcers in a patient with a history of stroke and immobility. Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are caused by prolonged pressure on the skin, leading to reduced blood flow and tissue damage. By regularly turning and repositioning the patient, pressure is relieved from specific areas of the body, helping to prevent the development of pressure ulcers. This intervention helps to redistribute pressure, improve blood flow, and reduce the risk of skin breakdown, thus promoting skin integrity in immobile patients.
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning. What action should the palliative nurse take?
- A. Dismiss the patient's request and focus on symptom management.
- B. Initiate a conversation about advance directives and future care preferences.
- C. Encourage the patient to postpone discussions about advance care planning.
- D. Refer the patient to a social worker for assistance with advance care planning.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient receiving palliative care for end-stage COPD expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning, the palliative nurse should initiate a conversation about advance directives and future care preferences. Advance care planning involves discussing and documenting a patient's preferences regarding future medical care, particularly in situations where the patient may no longer be able to make decisions. This discussion helps ensure that the patient's wishes are respected and followed in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. By engaging in advance care planning discussions, the nurse can help the patient feel empowered, supported, and in control of their medical care decisions. It also allows healthcare providers to align care with the patient's values and goals, ultimately improving quality of life and ensuring dignity at the end of life.
Some common examples of screening tests are the following, EXCEPT ________.
- A. Pap smears for cervical cancer screening in women.
- B. Cholesterol levels in heart disease screening.
- C. PSA levels for prostate CA in men.
- D. Urinalysis for male and female clients.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: While urinalysis can provide valuable information about a person's health status and can be part of a clinical assessment, it is not typically considered a common screening test for specific diseases or conditions. The other options listed - Pap smears for cervical cancer screening, cholesterol levels for heart disease screening, and PSA levels for prostate cancer screening - are all commonly used screening tests aimed at early detection of specific diseases. Urinalysis is more commonly used as part of a broader health assessment or diagnostic evaluation rather than a dedicated screening tool for a specific condition.