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A patient presents with urinary frequency, urgency, dysuria, and suprapubic pain. Urinalysis reveals pyuria and bacteriuria. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
- A. Acute glomerulonephritis
- B. Chronic kidney disease
- C. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
- D. Renal calculi
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's presentation of urinary frequency, urgency, dysuria, and suprapubic pain along with the urinalysis findings of pyuria (pus in the urine) and bacteriuria (bacteria in the urine) are highly suggestive of a urinary tract infection (UTI). UTIs are one of the most common types of bacterial infections seen in clinical practice. The symptoms described are classic for a lower urinary tract infection. The presence of pyuria and bacteriuria on urinalysis further supports the diagnosis of a UTI. Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema. Chronic kidney disease is often asymptomatic in early stages and presents with symptoms like fatigue, edema, and changes in urination later on. Renal calculi are associated with severe colicky flank pain that can radiate to the groin, and they may present with
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Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland, typically presenting with dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, and perineal or pelvic pain?
- A. Prostate cancer
- B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
- C. Prostatitis
- D. Urethritis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prostatitis is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland, leading to symptoms such as dysuria (painful urination), urinary frequency, urinary urgency, and perineal or pelvic pain. Prostate cancer, on the other hand, is characterized by the presence of malignant cells in the prostate gland and may not present with these typical symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that can cause urinary symptoms but is not typically associated with inflammation. Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra, which is a different condition and may present with symptoms such as painful urination and discharge from the urethra.
Which of the following charting rules will keep the nurse legally safe? I. Documenting worries and all concerns as verbalized by the patient. II Charting at the end of the shift only. III.Discussing of recorded cases and diagnosis of the patient. IV. Recording all information verbalized by patient and family.
- A. III, IV
- B. I
- C. I, III
- D. II
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct charting rule to keep the nurse legally safe is to document worries and all concerns as verbalized by the patient (Choice I). This is important for accurately reflecting the patient's condition, communication, and potential interventions. Charting at the end of the shift only (Choice II) is not recommended as it can lead to missed important details or delayed documentation. Discussing recorded cases and diagnoses of the patient (Choice III) breaches patient confidentiality and violates HIPAA laws. Recording all information verbalized by the patient and family (Choice IV) may include unnecessary details and could potentially lead to misinterpretation or misunderstanding, which might not be legally advantageous.
A patient presents with acute pain, swelling, and deformity of the ankle following a twisting injury. X-ray reveals a fracture involving the distal fibula with associated widening of the ankle mortise. Which type of ankle fracture is most likely?
- A. Maisonneuve fracture
- B. Pilon fracture
- C. Tillaux fracture
- D. Trimalleolar fracture
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A trimalleolar fracture is characterized by fractures involving the lateral malleolus (distal fibula), medial malleolus (distal tibia), and the posterior tubercle of the distal tibia. This fracture pattern results in instability of the ankle joint and is often associated with widening of the ankle mortise on X-ray. The deformity and swelling seen in this patient are indicative of a trimalleolar fracture and are typically caused by a high-energy injury, such as a forceful twisting motion. Treatment for trimalleolar fractures often involves surgical intervention to stabilize the ankle joint and restore normal function.
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning. What action should the palliative nurse take?
- A. Dismiss the patient's request and focus on symptom management.
- B. Initiate a conversation about advance directives and future care preferences.
- C. Encourage the patient to postpone discussions about advance care planning.
- D. Refer the patient to a social worker for assistance with advance care planning.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient receiving palliative care for end-stage COPD expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning, the palliative nurse should initiate a conversation about advance directives and future care preferences. Advance care planning involves discussing and documenting a patient's preferences regarding future medical care, particularly in situations where the patient may no longer be able to make decisions. This discussion helps ensure that the patient's wishes are respected and followed in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. By engaging in advance care planning discussions, the nurse can help the patient feel empowered, supported, and in control of their medical care decisions. It also allows healthcare providers to align care with the patient's values and goals, ultimately improving quality of life and ensuring dignity at the end of life.
Bulimia is best defined as a /an _____.
- A. disorder of the unknown origin associated with starving oneself
- B. pathological disorder of binging and vomiting
- C. phobic disorder of fear of obesity
- D. eating disorder associated with vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is best defined as a pathological disorder involving recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise, or misuse of laxatives. It is categorized as an eating disorder rather than a phobic disorder as it involves behaviors related to food consumption and body image, not just fears or phobias. Bulimia is not solely associated with starving oneself, as individuals with bulimia tend to consume large amounts of food during binge episodes. Therefore, the most accurate definition of bulimia is a pathological disorder of binging and vomiting.